9th Class Physics Full Book MCQs English Medium | Chapterwise
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1. The word “science” is derived from:
(A) Urdu (B) Arabic (C) Latin (D) English
2. The branch of physics which deals with study of motion of objects, is called:
(A) Sound (B) Kinematics (C) Mechanics (D) Thermodynamics
3. The study of internal structure of Earth is called:
(A) Atomic Physics (B) Geo Physics (C) Sound (D) Heat
4. Refrigerator is based on the principles of:
(A) Mechanics (B) Thermodynamics (C) Sound (D) Light
5. Natural philosophy was divided into branches:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Five (D) Seven
6. The word scientia means:
(A) Knowledge (B) Reading (C) Seeking (D) Writing
7. The branches of Physics are:
(A) Seven (B) Eight (C) Nine (D) Ten
8. Physical sciences deals with the study of:
(A) Living things (B) Non living things (C) Bacteria (D) Micro organisms
9. Natural philosophy was studied until:
(A) Seventeenth century (B) Eighteenth century (C) Nineteenth century (D) Twentieth century
10. In nineteenth century, natural philosophy was divided into ……… distinct disciplines:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
11. The branch of science in which we study matter, energy and their interaction is called:
(A) Chemistry (B) Physics (C) Physical sciences (D) Natural philosophy
12. Car is based on the principles of:
(A) Mechanics (B) Thermodynamics (C) Sound (D) Motion
13. The application of Physics is:
(A) Pulley (B) Clock (C) Car (D) All
14. The device which allows us to contact people anywhere in the world and to get latest worldwide information is:
(A) Mobile phone (B) Telegraph (C) Printer (D) All
15. Wind turbine is used to produce:
(A) Pollution free electricity (B) Air for plants (C) Water (D) Pollution
16. Vacuum cleaner works on the principle of:
(A) Mechanics (B) Physics (C) Light (D) Electricity
17. The study of ionic state of matter is called:
(A) Nuclear physics (B) Atomic physics (C) Plasma physics (D) Geophysics
18. The branch of Physics which studies the structure and properties of atom is called:
(A) Nuclear Physics (B) Geophysics (C) Atomic Physics (D) Plasma Physics
19. The basic quantity is:
(A) Mass (B) Volume (C) Torque (D) Momentum
20. Identify the base quantity:
(A) Speed (B) Area (C) Force (D) Distance
21. The number of base quantities in SI are:
(A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight
22. A physical quantity possesses at least ……… characteristics in common:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
23. Physical quantities are divided into ……… types:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
24. Physical quantities are ……… quantities:
(A) Readable (B) Measurable (C) Non measurable (D) B and C both
25. The base quantity is:
(A) Time (B) Work (C) Power (D) Energy
26. Derived quantity is:
(A) Force (B) Power (C) Volume (D) All
27. Base quantity is:
(A) Temperature (B) Intensity (C) Mass (D) All
28. The quantities on the basis of which other quantities are expressed are:
(A) Base (B) Derived (C) Physical (D) Measurable
29. The number of base units in SI are:
(A) Three (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Nine
30. Which one of the following is not a derived unit?
(A) Pascal (B) Kilogram (C) Newton (D) Watt
31. Amount of a substance in terms of numbers is measured in:
(A) Gram (B) Kilogram (C) Newton (D) Mole
32. The number of basic units are:
(A) Three (B) Five (C) Seven (D) Nine
33. Kilogram is a:
(A) Base unit (B) Base quantity (C) Derived unit (D) Derived quantity
34. The unit of density in system international is:
(A) Kg m (B) Kgm-1 (C) Kgm-2 (D) Kgm-3
35. The International System of units was adopted in:
(A) 1959 (B) 1960 (C) 1961 (D) 1962
36. 1 L is equal to:
(A) 10 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 1000 ml (D) 10,000 ml
37. The SI unit of mass is:
(A) Kilogram (B) Second (C) Metre (D) Newton
38. The SI unit of length is:
(A) Metre (B) Kilometre (C) Millimetre (D) Centimetre
39. The SI unit of force is:
(A) Newton (B) Kilogram (C) Watt (D) Pascal
40. SI unit of speed is:
(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2 (C) ms2 (D) ms
41. 1 Newton is equal to:
(A) kgms-1 (B) kgms-2 (C) kgms2 (D) kgms
42. Pascal is the unit of:
(A) Force (B) Weight (C) Pressure (D) Volume
43. An interval of 200 micro seconds is equivalent to:
(A) 0.2s (B) 0.02s (C) (D)
44. Which one of the following is the smallest quantity?
(A) 0.01g (B) 2mg (C) 100 grams (D) 5000 ng
45. One micro meter is equal to:
(A) 10-6 m (B) 10-3 m (C) 10-9 m (D) 103 m
46. One millimeter is equal to:
(A) 1 mm3 (B) 1 cm3 (C) 1 dm3 (D) 1 m-3
47. One tera is equal to:
(A) 10-12 (B) 10-18 (C) 1012 (D) 1018
48. One Femto is equal to:
(A) 10-12 (B) 1012 (C) 10-15 (D) 1015
49. One meter is equal to:
(A) 10 cm (B) 100 cm (C) 10000 cm (D) 100 mm
50. One Mega meter is equal to:
(A) 106 m (B) 109 m (C) 10-6 m (D) 1012 m
51. One Giga gram is equal to:
(A) 109 g (B) 10-9 g (C) 103 g (D) 10-6 g
52. One pico meter is equal to:
(A) 1012 m (B) 10-12 m (C) 106 m (D) 10-6 m
53. The words or letters added before SI units are:
(A) Prefixes (B) Base quantities (C) Derived quantities (D) Instruments
54. 62750 in scientific notation is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
55. Which instrument is most suitable to measure the internal diameter of a test tube?
(A) Metre rod (B) Vernier Calipers (C) Measuring tap (D) Screw gauge
56. A student claimed the diameter of a wire as 1.032cm using Vernier Callipers. Upto what extent do you agree with it?
(A) 1mm (B) 1.0mm (C) 1.03mm (D) 1.032mm
57. A measuring cylinder is used to measure:
(A) Mass (B) Area (C) Volume (D) Level of a liquid
58. A student noted the thickness of a glass sheet using a screw guage. On the main scale, it reads 3 divisions while 8th division on the circular scale coincides with index line. Its thickness is:
(A) 3.8 cm (B) 3.08 mm (C) 3.8 mm (D) 3.08 m
59. One cubic meter is equal to:
(A) 100 liters (B) 1000 liters (C) 10 liters (D) 106 liters
60. One liter is equal to ……… milliliters:
(A) 102 (B) 103 (C) 104 (D) 105
61. One liter is equal to:
(A) 1 mm (B) 1 cm3 (C) 1 dm3 (D) 1 m3
62. The least count of meter rule is:
(A) 1 mm (B) 0.1 mm (C) 0.01 mm (D) 1 cm
63. The length of a meter rule is:
(A) 1 meter (B) 0.5 meter (C) 2 meters (D) None of the above
64. The least count of a Vernier Callipers is:
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.01 cm (C) 1 mm (D) 1 cm
65. The least count of a digital Vernier Callipers is:
(A) 0.1 mm (B) 0.001 mm (C) 0.1 cm (D) 1 mm
66. The least count of a screw gauge is:
(A) 1 cm (B) 0.001 m (C) 0.01 mm (D) 1 mm
67. A metre rule is used to measure:
(A) Diameter (B) Length (C) Volume (D) Mass
68. One centimeter in metre rule is equal to:
(A) 10 dm (B) 10 mm (C) 5 dm (D) 5 dm
69. While using a metre rule, eye must be kept vertically ……… the reading point:
(A) Left (B) Right (C) Above (D) Near
70. Measuring tape is made of:
(A) Wool (B) Paper (C) Cotton (D) Wood
71. Total divisions on Vernier scale are:
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 100 (D) 20
72. The difference between one small division on main scale and one vernier scale division is:
(A) 1 mm (B) 0.1 mm (C) 0.01 mm (D) 0.01 mm
73. The most accurate instrument to find the length of extreme small object is:
(A) Vernier calipers (B) Screw guage (C) Metre rule (D) All
74. As thimble completes its one rotation, ……… divisions pass the index line:
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 20
75. The most accurate mass measuring instrument is:
(A) Physical balance (B) Lever balance (C) Electronic balance (D) None of the above
76. Beam balance can measure ……… of one gram:
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/100 (C) 1/1000 (D) 1/10000
77. Physical balance can measure ……… of one gram:
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/100 (C) 1/1000 (D) 1/10000
78. Electronic balance can measure ……… of one gram:
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/100 (C) 1/1000 (D) 1/10000
79. The types of stopwatches are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
80. Mechanical stopwatch can measure time interval up to a minimum ……… second:
(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.001
81. Digital stopwatch can measure the time interval up to a minimum ……… second:
(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.001
82. Significant figures in an expression are:
(A) all the digits (B) all the accurately known digits (C) all the accurately known digits and the first doubtful digit (D) all the accurately known and all the doubtful digits
83. The number of significant figures in 0.00580 is:
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
84. 0.027 has significant figures:
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4
85. Motion of objects is studied in:
(A) Mechanics (B) Light (C) Plasma (D) Sound
86. The branch of mechanics which study the motion of an object without discussing its causes and effects is called:
(A) Dynamics (B) Kinematics (C) Motion (D) Mechanism
87. The types of mechanics are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
88. A body, at a time, can be in the state of:
(A) Rest (B) Motion (C) Rest and motion (D) All
89. The state of rest and motion are ……… to each other:
(A) Greater (B) Less (C) Relative (D) Opposite
90. A body has translatory motion if it moves along a:
(A) Circle (B) Straight line (C) Curved path (D) Line without rotation
91. The motion of a body about an axis is called:
(A) Rotatory motion (B) Circular motion (C) Random motion (D) Vibratory motion
92. The straight line motion of a body is called:
(A) Translator motion (B) Linear motion (C) Random motion (D) Vibratory motion
93. The motion of a pendulum of a clock is:
(A) Rotatory motion (B) Vibratory motion (C) Linear motion (D) Random motion
94. The motion of a steering wheel is:
(A) Random motion (B) Rotatory motion (C) Vibratory motion (D) Linear motion
95. To and fro motion of a body about its mean position is called
(A) Rotatory motion (B) Random motion (C) Vibratory motion (D) Circular motion
96. See-saw is an example of:
(A) Translatory motion (B) Linear motion (C) Random motion (D) Vibratory motion
97. Brownian motion is:
(A) Linear motion (B) Circular motion (C) Vibratory motion (D) Random motion
98. The flight of a butterfly is called:
(A) Random motion (B) Circular motion (C) Vibratory motion (D) Rotatory motion
99. The motion of a car in a straight line is called:
(A) Linear motion (B) Random motion (C) Circular motion (D) Rotatory motion
100. The point around which a body rotates is called:
(A) Axis (B) Mid point (C) Circle (D) Rotation
101. Types of motion are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
102. Types of translatory motion are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
103. The motion of ferris wheel is:
(A) Circular motion (B) Random motion (C) Rotatory motion (D) Vibratory motion
104. The motion of a body in a circle is called:
(A) Random motion (B) Vibratory motion (C) Circular motion (D) Linear motion
105. Random motion of gas molecules is called:
(A) Brownian motion (B) Random motion (C) Circular motion (D) Linear motion
106. In rotatory motion, the line, around which a body moves about, is passing ……… the body:
(A) Through (B) Outside (C) Touching (D) None
107. The motion of Earth about its axis is called:
(A) Circular motion (B) Rotatory motion (C) Vibratory motion (D) Random motion
108. The motion of swing is called:
(A) Vibratory motion (B) Rotatory motion (C) Translatory motion (D) Circular motion
109. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Displacement (D) Power
110. Which is a scalar quantity?
(A) Force (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Work
111. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Velocity (D) Mass
112. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Force (B) Work (C) Power (D) Mass
113. ……… is not a vector quantity?
(A) Displacement (B) Velocity (C) Work (D) Torque
114. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(A) Force (B) Power (C) Velocity (D) Torque
115. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Displacement (D) Power
116. Vector quantity is:
(A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Displacement (D) Power
117. The quantities which do not require direction for their description are called:
(A) Scalars (B) Vectors (C) Both (D) None
118. To differentiate vectors from scalars, we usually use:
(A) Bold characters (B) Light characters (C) Both (D) None
119. Graphically the direction of a vector quantity is represented by:
(A) Arrow (B) Arrow head (C) Straight line (D) All
120. By dividing displacement of a moving body with time, we obtain:
(A) Acceleration (B) Speed (C) Deceleration (D) Velocity
121. A ball is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at the highest point will be:
(A) -10ms-1 (B) 10ms-1 (C) Zero (D) 100ms-1
122. A change in position is called:
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Displacement (D) Distance
123. A train is moving at a speed of 36kmh-1. Its speed expressed in ms-1 is:
(A) 5ms-1 (B) 10ms-1 (C) 20ms-1 (D) 25ms-1
124. A car, starts from rest and attain a velocity of 20ms-1 in 8 seconds, the acceleration of car will be:
(A) 1.5ms-2 (B) 2.0ms-2 (C) 2.5ms-2 (D) 3.0ms-2
125. A sprinter completes its 100 metre race in 12s, its average speed will be:
(A) 100ms-1 (B) 12ms-1 (C) 8ms-1 (D) 8.33ms-1
126. Unit of velocity is:
(A) Meter per square (B) Meter per Second (C) Second (D) Meter
127. Speed of falcon is:
(A) 150kmh-1 (B) 250kmh-1 (C) 300kmh-1 (D) 200kmh-1
128. Acceleration is equal to:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
129. The speed of cheetah is:
(A) 200 kmh-1 (B) 70 kmh-1 (C) 100 kmh-1 (D) 90 kmh-1
130. Distance is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Physical (D) None
131. Displacement is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Physical (D) None
132. The SI unit of speed is:
(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2 (C) ms2 (D) ms
133. The formula of speed is:
(A) S=vt (B) d=vt (C) (D)
134. The formula of velocity is:
(A) S=vt (B) d=vt (C) (D)
135. The SI unit of velocity is:
(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2 (C) ms2 (D) ms
136. The SI unit of acceleration is:
(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2 (C) ms2 (D) ms
137. The velocity of paratrooper is:
(A) Initial (B) Final (C) Terminal (D) Zero
138. If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time then it will have:
(A) Uniform velocity (B) Uniform speed (C) Uniform acceleration (D) Variable speed
139. The types of acceleration are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
140. The position is described with respect to some ………:
(A) Reference point (B) Location (C) Side (D) Place
141. The shortest distance between two points is called:
(A) Distance (B) Displacement (C) Length (D) Shortest distance
142. If the velocity of the body increases with time it is called:
(A) Positive acceleration (B) Negative acceleration (C) Uniform acceleration (D) Variable acceleration
143. If the velocity of the body decreases with time it is called:
(A) Positive acceleration (B) Negative acceleration (C) Uniform acceleration (D) Variable acceleration
144. The direction of positive acceleration is ……… of the motion of the body:
(A) Opposite to the direction (B) Same to the direction (C) Parallel to the direction (D) Vertical to the direction
145. The direction of negative acceleration is ……… of the motion of the body:
(A) Opposite to the direction (B) Same to the direction (C) Parallel to the direction (D) Vertical to the direction
146. If an object is moving with constant speed then its distance time graph will be a straight line:
(A) Along time axis (B) Along distance axis (C) Parallel to time axis (D) Inclined to time axis
147. A straight line parallel to time axis on a distance time graph tells that the object is:
(A) Moving with constant speed (B) At rest (C) Moving with variable speed (D) In motion
148. If an object is moving with constant speed, then its distance-time graph will be a straight line:
(A) Along a time axis (B) Along a distance axis (C) Parallel to a time axis (D) Inclined to a time axis
149. The area under the speed-time graph represents:
(A) Distance (B) Speed (C) Time (D) Velocity
150. To convert ms-1 to kmh-1:
(A) (B) =3.6 kmh-1 (C)
(D) =72 kmh-1
151. Convert 54 kmh-1 into ms-1:
(A) 5 ms-1 (B) 10 ms-1 (C) 15 ms-1 (D) 20 ms-1
152. Complete the equation: vf2 – vi2 = ………
(A) S (B) V av (C) 2aS (D) t
153. Complete the equation: vf = ………
(A) vi – at (B) vi + 1/2at2 (C) vi + at (D) S / a
154. Third equation of motion is:
(A) S = vt (B) vf = vi + at (C) vf2 – vi2 = 2aS (D) F = ma
155. Equations of motion are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
156. One meter per second is equal to:
(A) 3.6 kmh-1 (B) 1/3.6 kmh-1 (C) 6.3 kmh-1 (D) 1/6.3 kmh-1
157. The acceleration of a body falling down freely is approximately:
(A) 10 m2s-2 (B) 10 ms-2 (C) 10 ms-1 (D) 10 m2s-1
158. Gravitational acceleration is represented by:
(A) G (B) g (C) i (D) h
159. The first scientist to introduce gravitational acceleration was:
(A) Newton (B) Galileo (C) Pascal (D) Coulomb
160. Value of gravitational acceleration is positive when body is moving vertically ………:
(A) Upward (B) Downward (C) In a straight line (D) Inclined
161. Value of gravitational acceleration is negative when body is moving vertically ………:
(A) Upward (B) Downward (C) In a straight line (D) Inclined
162. Which of the following is the unit of momentum?
(A) Nm (B) kgms-2 (C) Ns (D) Ns-1
163. Inertia depends upon:
(A) Velocity (B) Mass (C) Net force (D) Force
164. The quantity possessed due to mass and velocity of a body is called:
(A) Acceleration (B) Velocity (C) Momentum (D) Inertia
165. Formula of momentum is:
(A) M = mv (B) P = mv (C) P = mv-1 (D) M = mv2
166. Mathematically momentum is defined as:
(A) P = v/m (B) P = mv2 (C) P = (mv)2 (D) P = mv
167. The product of mass and velocity of a body is called:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Work (D) Momentum
168. The SI unit of momentum is:
(A) Nm (B) Kgms-2 (C) Ns-1 (D) Ns
169. The branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion and its causes is called:
(A) Kinematics (B) Dynamics (C) Momentum (D) Rotation
170. When a goal keeper stops a ball he applies:
(A) Force (B) Torque (C) Momentum (D) Inertia
171. A batsman applies ……… to turn the ball in the different direction.
(A) Force (B) Momentum (C) Torque (D) Impulse
172. The concept of inertia was given by:
(A) Newton (B) Galileo (C) Pascal (D) Henry
173. Momentum of a body is represented by:
(A) M (B) P (C) T (D) V
174. In SI, the unit of momentum is Kgms-1 which is equal to:
(A) Nm (B) Kgms-2 (C) Ns-1 (D) Ns
175. A string is stretched by two equal and opposite forces 10N each. The tension in the string is:
(A) Zero (B) 5N (C) 10N (D) 20N
176. The mass of a body:
(A) Decreases when accelerated (B) Increases when accelerated (C) Decreases when moving with high velocity (D) None of these
177. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 attached to the ends of an inextensible string passing over a frictionless pulley such that both move vertically. The acceleration of a bodies is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
178. When horse pulls a cart, the action is on the?
(A) Cart (B) Earth (C) Horse (D) Earth and cart
179. Newton’s first law of motion is valid only in the absence of:
(A) Momentum (B) Friction (C) Net force (D) Force
180. A boy jumps out of a moving bus. There is a danger for him to fall.
(A) Towards the moving bus (B) Away from the bus (C) In the direction of motion (D) Opposite to the direction of motion
181. Which of the following relation is correct?
(A) F = m-a (B) F = ma (C) F = m/a (D) F = a/m
182. A mass of 6kg is moving with an acceleration of 2ms-2. Force acting on it is:
(A) 3 N (B) 4 N (C) 8 N (D) 12 N
183. Weight ‘w’ is equal to:
(A) w =mg (B) (C)
(D)
184. The unit of weight in system international is:
(A) Dyne (B) Kg (C) Pound (D) Newton
185. How much acceleration is produced by a force of 100 N in mass of 50 kg?
(A) 0.5 ms-2 (B) 20 ms-2 (C) 0.05 ms-2 (D) 2 ms-2
186. 1 Newton is equal to:
(A) 1 kgms-2 (B) 1 kgms (C) 1 kgm-1s-1 (D) 1 kg-1m-1s-1
187. The weight of a body is 147 N. Its mass will be:
(A) 1.47 kg (B) 14.7 kg (C) 0.147 kg (D) 1.47 kg
188. The force produces an acceleration of 10 ms-2 in a body of mass 5 kg. The value of force is:
(A) 2 N (B) 20 N (C) 30 N (D) 50 N
189. Rate of change of momentum is equal to:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Net force (D) Distance
190. Complete the equation:
(A) F (B) S (C) T (D) M
191. According to law of conservation of momentum:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
192. The resultant of all the forces acting on a body is called:
(A) Resultant force (B) Net force (C) Sum of forces (D) Couple
193. Newton’s first law of motion is related to the ……… property of matter:
(A) Massive (B) Inertial (C) Non inertial (D) Moving
194. When a bus takes a sharp turn, passengers fall in the outward direction due to:
(A) Mass (B) Weight (C) Inertia (D) Jerk
195. When the driver suddenly applies the brakes, the passengers fall in the ……… direction due to inertia:
(A) Forward (B) Backward (C) Left (D) Right
196. Newton’s first law of motion is also known as:
(A) Law of straight line (B) Law of inertia (C) Law of gravitation (D) Law of momentum
197. In the second law of motion, acceleration is directly proportional to:
(A) Force (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Velocity
198. In the second law of motion, acceleration is inversely proportional to:
(A) Force (B) Mass (C) Time (D) Velocity
199. Find the acceleration produced in a body by a force of 20N in a mass of 8kg:
(A) 2.5 ms-2 (B) 3.5 ms-2 (C) 4.5 ms-2 (D) 5.5 ms-2
200. Mass and weight are ……… quantities:
(A) Same (B) Different (C) Congruent (D) Equal
201. Mass is measured by:
(A) Ordinary balance (B) Spring balance (C) Stop watch (D) Thermometer
202. Weight is measured by:
(A) Ordinary balance (B) Spring balance (C) Stop watch (D) Thermometer
203. Mass is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Derived (D) None
204. Weight is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Base (D) None
205. Quantity of matter in a substance is called:
(A) Mass (B) Weight (C) Density (D) Volume
206. The unit of mass is:
(A) Dyne (B) Kilogram (C) Newton (D) Gram
207. The mass of a body remains ……… at every place:
(A) Variable (B) Constant (C) Zero (D) Changed
208. Application of 3rd law of motion is:
(A) Rocket (B) Air filled balloon (C) Book lying on a table (D) All
209. An isolated system is a group of bodies on which no ……… force acts:
(A) Internal (B) External (C) Net (D) Total
210. When a bullet is fired, the gun recoils a little as compared to the speed of bullet, it is because:
(A) Large mass of gun (B) Recoiling is in the backward direction (C) To conserve the momentum (D) None
211. When two interacting balls colloid, they interchange their ………:
(A) Mass (B) Momentum (C) Torque (D) Velocity
212. Two bodies are attached to the ends of a string that passes over a frictionless pulley. Then the tension “T” is equal to:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
213. Which of the following material lowers friction when pushed between metal plates?
(A) Water (B) Fine marble powder (C) Air (D) Oil
214. The force that opposes the motion of moving objects is:
(A) Weight (B) Action (C) Friction (D) Momentum
215. The maximum value of friction is called:
(A) Cold welds (B) Normal reaction (C) Limiting friction (D) Kinetic friction
216. Coefficient of friction is equal to:
(A) Fs/R (B) FsR (C) R/Fs (D) Fs + R
217. Coefficient of friction between glass and glass is:
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.2
218. The value of coefficient of friction between steel and steel is:
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.09 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.8
219. Coefficient of friction between tyre and dry road is:
(A) 0.6 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.2
220. Coefficient of friction between the tyre and road is:
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.8 (D) 1
221. Coefficient of friction between the ice and wood is:
(A) 0.29 (B) 0.05 (C) 0.2 (D) 1.0
222. Coefficient of friction between the iron and iron is:
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.62 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
223. The co efficient of friction is represented by:
(A) (B) U (C)
(D)
224. We need ……… to walk on the ground:
(A) Force (B) Friction (C) Resistance (D) Pressure
225. The joining points between two sliding surfaces are called:
(A) Interacting points (B) Contact points (C) Cold welds (D) None
226. The factors affecting friction are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
227. The wheels of the moving vehicle have …… velocity components:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
228. In order to change sliding friction into rolling friction, we use:
(A) Ball bearings (B) Roller bearings (C) Wheels (D) All
229. On which surface it is easy for the tyre to roll over?
(A) Rough (B) Smooth (C) Both (D) None
230. Slippery road provides ……… friction:
(A) Less (B) Greater (C) Enough (D) Rolling
231. Applying brakes too strongly will increase the chance of:
(A) Friction (B) Skidding (C) Rolling (D) Sliding
232. Making the sliding surfaces smooth is a method of:
(A) Increasing friction (B) Reducing friction (C) Rolling friction (D) None
233. The force required to move the car in a curved path is:
(A) Centrifugal force (B) Tension (C) Gravitational force (D) Centripetal force
234. Which force rotates the body in a circle?
(A) Magnetic force (B) Gravitational force (C) Centripetal force (D) Centrifugal force
235. The motion of a body in a circular path is called:
(A) Rotatory motion (B) Circular motion (C) Random motion (D) Centripetal force
236. The force which moves the body out the circle is called:
(A) Centripetal force (B) Centrifugal force (C) Rotatory motion (D) Tangential motion
237. The formula of centripetal force is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
238. Banking of road provides:
(A) Centripetal force (B) Centrifugal force (C) Rotatory force (D) Circular motion
239. The dryer of washing machine works on the principle of:
(A) Centrifuge machine (B) Centripetal force (C) Circular motion (D) Rotatory motion
240. Cream is ……… than the other components of the milk:
(A) Denser (B) Lighter (C) Upper (D) Lower
241. In the cream separator the heavier contents of the milk move in the ……… direction:
(A) Inward (B) Outward (C) Left side (D) Right side
242. The SI unit of centripetal force is:
(A) Kg (B) N (C) Dyne (D) ms-1
243. The forces which are parallel to each other are called:
(A) Parallel forces (B) Like parallel forces (C) Unlike parallel forces (D) Unparallel forces
244. Like parallel forces are parallel to each other and have ……… direction:
(A) Same (B) Opposite (C) Equal (D) Upward
245. The weight of different bodies is an example of:
(A) Like parallel forces (B) Unlike parallel forces (C) Upward forces (D) Downward forces
246. Unlike parallel forces are parallel to each other and have ……… direction:
(A) Same (B) Opposite (C) Equal (D) Upward
247. When an apple is suspended with a string, then the weight and tension in the string are:
(A) Unlike parallel forces (B) Like parallel forces (C) Vertical forces (D) Downward forces
248. When some people push the bus in the forward direction by applying forces it is an example of:
(A) Unlike parallel forces (B) Like parallel forces (C) Forward forces (D) Backward forces
249. The number of forces that can be added by head to tail rule are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Any number
250. The number of vectors that can be added by head to tail rule is:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Any number
251. A force that has the same effect as the combined effect of all the forces to be added is called:
(A) Net force (B) Resultant force (C) Additional force (D) Single force
252. In head to tail rule, the head of the resultant vector coincides with the head of ………:
(A) First vector (B) Last vector (C) Both (D) None
253. In head to tail rule, the tail of the resultant vector coincides with the tail of ………:
(A) First vector (B) Last vector (C) Both (D) None
254. Resultant vector is represented by:
(A) R (B) V (C) F (D) S
255. Head to tail rule is a ……… method:
(A) Graphical (B) Horizontal (C) Vertical (D) Plane
256. The number of perpendicular components of a force are:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
257. A force of 10N is making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. Its horizontal components will be:
(A) 4N (B) 5N (C) 7N (D) 8.7N
258.
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
259.
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
260. Tan 45°is equal to:
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.732 (C) 0.577 (D) 1
261. Sin 45°is equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.707 (D) 1
262. Sin 45° = Cos 45° = ………
(A) 1.732 (B) Undefined (C) 0.866 (D) 0.707
263. The value of sin 90° is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 10 (D) 0.5
264. The number of perpendicular components of a vector are:
(A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One
265. Formula for the direction of resultant force with the help of rectangular components is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
266. The direction of force ‘F’ with x axis is given by:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
267. Complete the equation: = ………:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
268. In a right angled triangle, length of base is 4 cm and its hypotenuse if 5 cm. The length of a perpendicular is:
(A) 1 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 9 cm
269. A force of 10 N makes an angle of 900 with x-axis. Its horizontal component is:
(A) 10 N (B) 5 N (C) Zero (D) Maximum
270. In a right angled triangle, length of base is 4 cm and perpendicular is 3 cm. then its tan ?? is equal to:
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.75 (C) 1 (D) 0.6
271. If Fy = 4N and Fx = 3N, what is the magnitude of resultant force?
(A) 7 N (B) 5 N (C) 12 N (D) 10 N
272.
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
273. In a right angled triangle, the horizontal component is called:
(A) Base (B) Perpendicular (C) Hypotenuse (D) Right angle
274. In a right angled triangle, the vertical component is called:
(A) Base (B) Perpendicular (C) Hypotenuse (D) Right angle
275. The magnitude of resultant force can be found by:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
276. In a right-angled triangle, the angle opposite to hypotenuse is called:
(A) Base (B) Perpendicular (C) Right angle (D) Straight side
277. In a right-angled triangle, Fx=?
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
278. In a right-angled triangle, Fy=?
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
279. The turning effect of a force is called:
(A) Momentum (B) Torque (C) Pressure (D) Work
280. Torque is equal to:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
281. In SI, unit of torque is:
(A) Nm (B) Nm-1 (C) Nm2 (D) Ns
282. The perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the line of action of force is called:
(A) Torque (B) Moment arm (C) Momentum (D) Work
283. Longer moment arm can reduce:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Moment of force (D) Rotation
284. Longer moment arm can increase:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Rotation (D) Acceleration
285. Shorter moment arm produce ……… torque:
(A) Greater (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Same
286. Torque depends upon ……… factors:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
287. When we twist a water tap, we produce:
(A) Force (B) Torque (C) Rotation (D) None
288. Greater force produce ……… amount of torque:
(A) Small (B) Greater (C) Same (D) Different
289. The purpose of fixing the handle of the door at the outer edge is to produce ……… torque:
(A) Small (B) Greater (C) Same (D) Different
290. Torque is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Base (D) None
291. 1 Nm is equal to:
(A) kgm2s-2 (B) kgm2s-1 (C) kgms-1 (D) kgms-2
292. The torque produced in the direction of clock is called:
(A) Clock wise torque (B) Anti-clock wise torque (C) Direct torque (D) Indirect torque
293. The torque produced in the opposite direction of clock is called:
(A) Clock wise torque (B) Anti-clock wise torque (C) Direct torque (D) Indirect torque
294. The point where the applied force causes the system to move without rotation is called:
(A) Center of mass (B) Center of Gravity (C) Axis of Rotation (D) None
295. The centre of gravity of a triangle is at:
(A) Centre (B) Point of intersection of medians (C) Centre of axis (D) Point of intersection of diagonals
296. The centre of gravity of uniform ……… sheet is the point of intersection of its diagonals:
(A) Triangle (B) Solid cylinder (C) Circular ring (D) Square
297. Centre of gravity of a sphere is at:
(A) Centre of a sphere (B) Outside of a sphere (C) Radius of a sphere (D) None of the above
298. The centre of gravity of an irregular shaped body can be found with the help of:
(A) Wedge (B) Metre rod (C) Plumb line (D) Screw gauge
299. Point of intersection of medians is the centre of gravity of a uniform:
(A) Rod (B) Circular ring (C) Solid cylinder (D) Triangular sheet
300. The point where the whole weight of the body acts vertically downward is called ………:
(A) Center of mass (B) Center of Gravity (C) Axis of Rotation (D) None
301. The center of gravity of a circle is:
(A) Its centre point (B) Point at its circumference (C) Point at its tangent (D) Point at any chord
302. Two equals but unlike parallel forces having different line of action produce:
(A) A torque (B) A couple (C) Equilibrium (D) Neutral equilibrium
303. A couple is formed by:
(A) two forces perpendicular to each other (B) two like parallel forces (C) two equal and oppsite forces in the same line (D) two equal and opposite forces not in the same line
304. A double arm spanner produces:
(A) Couple (B) Torque (C) Force (D) Acceleration
305. Equation for couple is:
(A) couple = F x AB (B) couple = F x OB (C) couple = F x OA (D) couple = F x AOB
306. We can rotate a steering wheel more easily by applying ………:
(A) Torque (B) Couple (C) Force (D) Pressure
307. A body is said in dynamic equilibrium if it has:
(A) Uniform acceleration (B) Uniform speed (C) Uniform speed and acceleration (D) Zero acceleration
308. A body is in neutral equilibrium when its centre of gravity:
(A) Is at its highest position (B) Is at the lowest position (C) Keeps its height if displaced (D) Is situated at its base
309. A body is in equilibrium when its:
(A) Acceleration is zero (B) Speed is uniform (C) Acceleration is uniform (D) Speed and acceleration is uniform
310. The conditions for equilibrium are:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
311. According to 2nd condition of equilibrium, must be zero:
(A) Angular acceleration (B) Linear acceleration (C) Rotational force (D) Sum of forces
312. States of equilibrium are:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
313. A pencil lying horizontally is the example of:
(A) Equilibrium (B) Stable equilibrium (C) Unstable equilibrium (D) Neutral equilibrium
314. An example of neutral equilibrium is:
(A) Football (B) Block (C) Pencil at its tip (D) Book on a table
315. The second condition for equilibrium is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D) None
316. To satisfy first condition for equilibrium, resultant ……… should be zero:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Force (D) Acceleration
317. For second condition for equilibrium, resultant ……… should be zero:
(A) Torque (B) Force (C) Pressure (D) Acceleration
318. The symbol sigma is ……… word:
(A) Greek (B) Latin (C) British (D) Turkey
319. The symbol sigma means:
(A) Sum (B) Resultant (C) Subtraction (D) Multiplication
320. A book lying on a table satisfies the ……… condition for equilibrium:
(A) 1st (B) 2nd (C) Both (D) None
321. If a body satisfies the first condition for equilibrium, it can ………:
(A) Move (B) Rotate (C) Accelerates (D) Break
322. A body is totally in the state of equilibrium, if it satisfies ……… condition for equilibrium:
(A) 1st (B) 2nd (C) Both (D) None
323. Racing cars are made stable by:
(A) Increasing their speed (B) Decreasing their mass (C) Lowering their centre of gravity (D) Decreasing their width
324. Earth’s gravitational force of attraction vanishes at:
(A) 6400 km (B) infinity (C) 42300 km (D) 1000 km
325. A force which is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of bodies is:
(A) Frictional force (B) Centrifugal force (C) Centripetal force (D) Gravitational force
326. Value of Gravitational constant ‘G’ is:
(A) 6.67 x 10-9 Nm2kg-2 (B) 6.67 x 10-10 Nm2kg-2 (C) 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2kg-2 (D) 6.67 x 10-12 Nm2kg-2
327. Near the surface of Earth, the gravitational field strength is:
(A) 5 Nkg-1 (B) 6 Nkg-1 (C) 8 Nkg-1 (D) 10 Nkg-1
328. The idea of gravity was first put by:
(A) Galileo (B) Isaac Newton (C) Hooke (D) Einstein
329. According to the law of gravitation ‘F’ is equal to:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
330. Newton gave the concept of gravity in:
(A) 1664 (B) 1665 (C) 1666 (D) 1667
331. Newton was sitting under a tree of:
(A) Mango (B) Apple (C) Orange (D) Banana
332. There exists a force due to which everybody attracts every other body, this force is called:
(A) Gravitational force (B) Centripetal force (C) Centrifugal force (D) Frictional force
333. The gravitational force is directly proportional to the ……… of the bodies:
(A) Weights (B) Product of masses (C) Pressures (D) Centers
334. The gravitational constant is represented by:
(A) C (B) G (C) g (D) None
335. Due to very ……… value of G, we cannot feel gravitational force around us:
(A) Small (B) Large (C) Normal (D) Greater
336. The weight of an object is a result of Earth’s ………:
(A) Centripetal force (B) Gravitational force of attraction (C) Centrifugal force (D) Frictional force
337. The region in which Earth can exert gravitational force on a body is called:
(A) Magnetic field (B) Gravitational field (C) Electric field (D) None
338. The unit of gravitational field strength is:
(A) N (B) Nkg (C) Nkg-1 (D) Nkg-2
339. The direction of the gravitational field strength is towards:
(A) Center of the Earth (B) Radius of the Earth (C) Surface of the Earth (D) Diameter of the Earth
340. Gravitational force is a ……… force:
(A) Attractive (B) Non-contact (C) Both (D) Contact
341. Gravitational field exists in:
(A) All directions (B) Upward direction (C) Downward direction (D) At center
342. Gravitational force becomes ……… as we go farther away from the Earth:
(A) Stronger (B) Weaker (C) Remains constant (D) Double
343. The value of gravitational field strength is equal to the value of ………:
(A) Gravitational constant (B) Gravitational acceleration (C) Weight (D) None
344. As we increase the distance between two bodies, the gravitational force becomes:
(A) Stronger (B) Weaker (C) Remains constant (D) None
345. The gravitational force acting on a body is equal to:
(A) Weight of the body (B) Mass of the body (C) Volume of the body (D) Distance of the body
346. As we go up, the weight of the body ………:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) None
347. At mountains, our weight ………:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) No weight (D) Remains constant
348. The value of g on Moon’s surface is 1.6 ms-2. What will be the weight of a 100 kg body on the surface of the Moon?
(A) 10 N (B) 16 N (C) 100 N (D) 160 N
349. Formula of mass of Earth is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
350. The mass of Earth is:
(A) 6 x 104 kg (B) 6 x 1014 kg (C) 6 x 1024 kg (D) 6 x 10-24 kg
351. The mass of a boy is 40 kg. its weight on Earth will be:
(A) 200 N (B) 300 N (C) 400 N (D) 500 N
352. The mass of the Earth can be found by using:
(A) Law of gravitation (B) Altitude (C) Centripetal force (D) Repulsive force
353. To find the mass of Earth, we need the value of gravitational acceleration and ……… of the Earth:
(A) Diameter (B) Radius (C) Center (D) Weight
354. The value of “g” increases with the:
(A) Increase in mass of the body (B) Increases in altitude (C) Decrease in altitude (D) None of the above
355. Value of ‘g’ at sea-level is ……… than hill:
(A) Less (B) Greater (C) Equal (D) Half
356. The value of ‘g’ at Moon is:
(A) 1.6 ms-2 (B) 1.6 cms-2 (C) 1.6 ms-1 (D) 1.6 km-1
357. The value of ‘g’ at Jupiter is:
(A) 1.62 ms-2 (B) 9.8 ms-2 (C) 10 ms-2 (D) 25.94 ms-2
358. The value of “g” on the surface of Mars is:
(A) 3.73 ms-2 (B) 1.62 ms-2 (C) 8.87 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
359. The height of an object from sea level is called:
(A) Size (B) Altitude (C) Length (D) Distance
360. The value of g at a height equal to one Earth radius from the surface of Earth is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
361. The value of g at a height equal to two Earth radius from the surface of Earth is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
362. The formula to find the value of g at a height h is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
363. As we go up, the value of g:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) None
364. The altitude of geostationary orbits in which communication satellites are launched above the surface of the Earth is:
(A) 850 km (B) 1000 km (C) 6,400 km (D) 42,300 km
365. The orbital speed of a low orbit satellite is:
(A) zero (B) 8 ms-1 (C) 800 ms-1 (D) 8000 ms-1
366. The speed of geostationary satellite with respect to Earth is:
(A) Double (B) Same (C) Zero (D) Less
367. The total number of satellites in global positioning system is:
(A) 12 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25
368. The speed of a satellite nearest to the Earth’s orbit is:
(A) 6 kms-1 (B) 7 kms-1 (C) 8 kms-1 (D) 10 kms-1
369. The height of a geostationary satellite is about:
(A) 42,300 km (B) 6,400 km (C) 10,000 km (D) 38,000 km
370. The moon is nearly ……… away from the Earth:
(A) 3,80,000 km (B) 3,800 km (C) 37,000 km (D) 37,0000 km
371. The moon completes its one rotation around the Earth in:
(A) 25.3 days (B) 27.3 days (C) 29.3 days (D) 31.3 days
372. The centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to:
(A) Mass (B) Velocity (C) Radius (D) Mass and radius
373. Centripetal force is directly proportional to:
(A) m2 (B) v2 (C) V (D) R
374. The velocity of geostationary satellites with respect to Earth is:
(A) Zero (B) 5 kmh-1 (C) 10 kmh-1 (D) 15 kmh-1
375. Orbital speed of artificial satellite vo is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
376. Geostationary satellites complete their one rotation around the Earth in ……… hours:
(A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 72 (D) 96
377. The moon is ……… of Earth:
(A) Natural satellite (B) Artificial satellite (C) Planet (D) Star
378. The force that keeps a satellite in its orbit is:
(A) Centripetal force (B) Centrifugal force (C) Circular motion (D) Rotatory motion
379. The work done will be zero when the angle between the force and the distance is:
(A) 45o (B) 60o (C) 90o (D) 180o
380. If the direction of the force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the body, then work done will be:
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None of these
381. The SI unit of work is:
(A) Newton (B) Joule (C) Watt (D) Pascal
382. The formula to find work is:
(A) (B) W=FS (C) F=WS (D) F=ma
383. Work is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Base (D) None
384. The SI unit of work is joule, one joule is equal to:
(A) Nm (B) Ns (C) Nm-1 (D) Nm-2
385. Work done depends upon ……… factors:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
386. Work done will be maximum when the angle between force and displacement is:
(A) Zero (B) Opposite (C) Perpendicular (D) Anti-parallel
387. When a boy pushes a wall, its work done will be:
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) 10J
388. When we lift a heavy load and walk in the forward direction our work done will be:
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) Undefined
389. Work done increases with the increase in:
(A) Force (B) Displacement (C) Both (D) None
390. If the direction of force and displacement are the same, work done will be:
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None
391. 1 kilo joule is equal to:
(A) 103J (B) 106J (C) 109J (D) 1012J
392. 1 Mega joule is equal to:
(A) 103J (B) 106J (C) 109J (D) 1012J
393. The amount of work is directly proportional to its:
(A) Energy (B) Potential (C) Power (D) Efficiency
394. Kinetic energy is a type of:
(A) Mechanical energy (B) Potential energy (C) Heat energy (D) Sound energy
395. Potential energy is a type of:
(A) Mechanical energy (B) Kinetic energy (C) Heat energy (D) Sound energy
396. Mechanical energy has ……… types:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
397. If the velocity of a body becomes double, then its kinetic energy will:
(A) Remain the same (B) Become double (C) Become four times (D) Become half
398. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2kg is 25J. Its speed is:
(A) 5ms-1 (B) 12.5ms-1 (C) 25ms-1 (D) 50ms-1
399. Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the ……… velocity of a body:
(A) Square (B) Two ties (C) Three times (D) Four times
400. If the velocity of a body becomes three times greater, then kinetic energy will be:
(A) Three times (B) Nine times (C) Four times (D) Six times
401. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called:
(A) Nuclear energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Kinetic energy (D) Potential energy
402. The mathematical form of kinetic energy is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
403. Work done by a body due to its motion is equal to:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Light energy (D) Heat energy
404. Wind is ……… air:
(A) Moving (B) Cool (C) Static (D) Mixture
405. Sailing boats run due to:
(A) Wind (B) Air (C) Water (D) Man power
406. The work done in lifting a brick of mass 2kg through a height of 5m above ground will be:
(A) 2.5J (B) 10J (C) 50J (D) 100J
407. The energy in the stretched bow is:
(A) Elastic potential energy (B) Kinetic energy (C) Heat energy (D) Sound energy
408. Hammer raised up has energy:
(A) Potential energy (B) Kinetic energy (C) Sound energy (D) Heat energy
409. The energy possessed by a body due to its position is called:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Light energy (D) Mechanical energy
410. Stored water possessed energy:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Static energy (D) Mechanical energy
411. The formula of potential energy is:
(A) P.E=mgh (B) P.E=mg(h+r) (C) P.E=mgw (D) P.E=mg
412. The types of potential energy are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
413. Which one of the following converts light energy into electrical energy?
(A) Electric bulb (B) Electric generator (C) Photocell (D) Electric cell
414. When a body is lifted through a height h, the work done on it appears in the form of its:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Elastic potential energy (D) Geothermal energy
415. The energy stored in coal is:
(A) Heat energy (B) Kinetic energy (C) Chemical energy (D) Nuclear energy
416. The energy stored in dam water is:
(A) Electric energy (B) Potential energy (C) Kinetic energy (D) Thermal energy
417. ……… device converts light energy into electrical energy:
(A) Electric bulb (B) Electric generator (C) Photocell (D) Electric cell
418. The example of mechanical energy is:
(A) Wind (B) Sun (C) Battery (D) Food
419. We gain chemical energy from:
(A) Food (B) Fuels (C) Coal (D) All
420. Plants produce food in the presence of:
(A) Light (B) Electricity (C) Fuels (D) None
421. The energy produced from knocking at doors is:
(A) Mechanical energy (B) Sound energy (C) Kinetic energy (D) Potential energy
422. Fission and fusion reactions produce:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Nuclear energy (C) Light energy (D) Sound energy
423. The source of light is:
(A) Sun (B) Battery (C) Generators (D) Cells
424. Most of the light comes from:
(A) Bulbs (B) Sun (C) Nuclear plants (D) Electricity
425. The energy in food is:
(A) Chemical (B) Muscular (C) Electric (D) Mechanical
426. Heat energy released in nuclear reactors is used to produce:
(A) Electricity (B) Food (C) Plants (D) Chemicals
427. Electric energy is obtained from:
(A) Batteries (B) Generators (C) Power plants (D) All
428. Energy obtained from hot bodies is ……… energy:
(A) Heat (B) Nuclear (C) Chemical (D) Electrical
429. The main source of heat energy is:
(A) Sun (B) Power plants (C) Volcanic eruption (D) All
430. The energy coming from the sun is the result of ……… taking place on the Sun:
(A) Chemical reactions (B) Nuclear reactions (C) Heat (D) None
431. During rubbing our hands, we convert our muscular energy into ……… energy:
(A) Light (B) Heat (C) Chemical (D) Sound
432. The energy possessed by clouds is ……… energy:
(A) Potential (B) Kinetic (C) Heat (D) Chemical
433. When the rain falls, the potential energy change into:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Sound energy (C) Chemical energy (D) None
434. In Einstein’s mass-energy equation, c is the:
(A) Speed of sound (B) Speed of light (C) Speed of electron (D) Speed of Earth
435. There is a hot molten part, deep in the Earth called:
(A) Lava (B) Magma (C) Mixture (D) Plasma
436. The source to produce pollution free electricity is:
(A) Coal (B) Oil (C) Wind turbine (D) Radioactivity
437. The compounds of hydrogen and oxygen are called:
(A) Organic compounds (B) Hydrocarbons (C) Inorganic compounds (D) None
438. The speed of light is:
(A) 3 x 108 ms-1 (B) 3 x 109 ms-1 (C) 3 x 1011 ms-1 (D) 3 x 106 ms-1
439. Coal, gas and oil are:
(A) Inorganic compounds (B) Fossil fuels (C) Carbohydrates (D) Fuels
440. Fossil fuels are called:
(A) Renewable sources (B) Non-renewable sources (C) Permanent sources (D) Inorganic compounds
441. An air pollutant is:
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Oxygen (C) Sulphur (D) Nitrogen
442. Harmful gases released by burning of fossil fuels may cause:
(A) Asthma (B) Lungs cancer (C) Tension (D) All
443. During fission reaction, ……… atom splits into smaller parts releasing a large amount of energy:
(A) Uranium (B) Oxygen (C) Hydrogen (D) Radium
444. Renewable energy sources are:
(A) Fossil fuels (B) Oil (C) Gas (D) Sunlight
445. Energy from water power is very:
(A) Expensive (B) Cheap (C) Costly (D) Dangerous
446. ……… are used to control floods by storing water:
(A) Dams (B) Canals (C) Rivers (D) Oceans
447. Solar house heating consists of ……… components:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
448. Solar cell is made of:
(A) Silicon wafers (B) Aluminum wafers (C) Copper wafers (D) Brass wafers
449. The ratio of output energy to input energy is called:
(A) Efficiency (B) Power (C) Energy (D) Work
450. The efficiency of solar cell is:
(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%
451. The efficiency of an ideal system is:
(A) 90% (B) 100% (C) 80% (D) 75%
452. Rate of doing work is called:
(A) Energy (B) Torque (C) Power (D) Momentum
453. Power is equal to:
(A) W x t (B) W / t2 (C) W2/ t (D) W / t
454. 10 joules work is done by a machine in 5 sec, its power will be:
(A) 2 W (B) 10 W (C) 25 W (D) 50 W
455. One horse power is equal to:
(A) 764 W (B) 746 W (C) 1000 W (D) 1100 W
456. 1 MW is equal to:
(A) 102 W (B) 104 W (C) 106 W (D) 108 W
457. One kilo joule is equal to:
(A) 103 W (B) 106 W (C) 109 W (D) 10-3 W
458. The unit of power is:
(A) Watt (B) Joule (C) Newton (D) No unit
459. Power is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Base (D) None
460. In which of the following state molecules do not leave their position?
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Plasma
461. Molecules are very close in body of:
(A) Plasma (B) Solid (C) Liquid (D) Gases
462. The fourth state of matter is:
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gases (D) Plasma
463. Matter exists in ……… states:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
464. Matter is made up of particles called:
(A) Molecules (B) Atoms (C) Compounds (D) Microorganisms
465. The molecules in solids are ……… to each other:
(A) Farther (B) Closer (C) At a particular distance (D) Do not attract
466. Solids have fixed shape and ………:
(A) Area (B) Volume (C) Origin (D) None
467. The distance between the molecules of liquids is ……… than solids:
(A) Less (B) Greater (C) 2cm (D) No distance
468. The molecules of liquids can slide over each other due to:
(A) Weaker attractive forces (B) Weaker repulsive forces (C) Strong attractive forces (D) Gravitational forces
469. Plasma is the ……… state of matter:
(A) Atomic (B) Molecular (C) Ionic (D) Radical
470. The kinetic energy of gas molecules goes on ……… if the gas is heated continuously:
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Vanishing (D) None
471. The highly conducting state of matter is:
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Plasma
472. Plasma is highly conducting state due to the presence of:
(A) Atoms (B) Molecules (C) Ions (D) Electrons
473. Which of the following substance is the lightest one?
(A) Copper (B) Mercury (C) Aluminum (D) Lead
474. Mass of unit volume of anybody:
(A) Area (B) Density (C) Force (D) Surface
475. In SI, the unit of density is:
(A) Kgm-1 (B) Kgm-3 (C) Kgm-2 (D) Kgm-1
476. Density = ……:
(A) Mass/volume (B) Weight/volume (C) Weight/mass (D) Mass/volume
477. Mercury is denser than water:
(A) 10 times (B) 12.5 times (C) 13.6 times (D) 10.5 times
478. 5 liter is equal to:
(A) 5 x 10-3 m3 (B) 5 x 103 m3 (C) 5 x 10-3 cm-3 (D) 5 x 103 cm3
479. 1 litre is equal to:
(A) 10-3m3 (B) 103m3 (C) 103m-3 (D) 10-3m-3
480. The density of water is:
(A) 1000kgm-3 (B) 920kgm-3 (C) 920kgm3 (D) 1000kgm3
481. The density of ice is:
(A) 1000kgm-3 (B) 920kgm-3 (C) 920kgm3 (D) 1000kgm3
482. The density of aluminium is:
(A) 920kgm-3 (B) 1000kgm-3 (C) 2700kgm-3 (D) 270kgm-3
483. Large value of density means:
(A) Light body (B) Heavy body (C) Denser body (D) Big body
484. The mass of 200cm3 of stone is 500g. find its density:
(A) 2.5 gcm-3 (B) 2.0 gcm-3 (C) 3.5 gcm-3 (D) 3.0 gcm-3
485. SI unit of pressure is Pascal, which is equal to:
(A) 104 Nm-2 (B) 1 Nm-2 (C) 102 Nm-2 (D) 103 Nm-2
486. One Pascal is equal to:
(A) 104 Nm-2 (B) 1 Nm-2 (C) 102 Nm-2 (D) 12 Nm-2
487. In SI, the unit of pressure is:
(A) Nm-2 (B) Kgk-1 (C) Nm (D) Kgm-3
488. Pressure is equal to:
(A) FA (B) F/A (C) F/v (D) F/m
489. Pressure is a ……… quantity:
(A) Scalar (B) Vector (C) Base (D) All
490. In SI, the unit of pressure is Pascal which is represented by:
(A) P (B) Pa (C) Pl (D) Pc
491. What should be the approximate length of a glass tube to construct a water barometer?
(A) 0.5m (B) 1m (C) 2.5m (D) 11m
492. At sea level, the atmospheric pressure is about:
(A) 101,300 Pa (B) 110,300 Pa (C) 103,100 Pa (D) 1000,130 Pa
493. Earth’s atmosphere extends upward about a few hundred ……… above sea level:
(A) Meters (B) Kilometers (C) Centimeters (D) Decimeters
494. Atmospheric pressure acts from ………:
(A) Left direction (B) Upward direction (C) Downward direction (D) All direction
495. The Earth is surrounded by a cover of air called:
(A) Green house effect (B) Ozone depletion (C) Atmosphere (D) Carbon dioxide
496. The mixture of gases is called:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Air (C) Alcohol (D) Water
497. The spherical shape of air filled balloon is due to:
(A) Atmospheric pressure acts in all direction equally (B) Atmospheric pressure acts in upward direction equally (C) Atmospheric pressure acts in downward direction equally (D) Atmospheric pressure does not act equally
498. The instrument that is used to measure atmospheric pressure is called:
(A) Manometer (B) Barometer (C) Thermometer (D) Galvanometer
499. The length of the tube of mercury barometer is:
(A) 1 meter (B) 2 meters (C) 10 meters (D) 11 meters
500. At sea level, the height of mercury column in the barometer is:
(A) 76cm (B) 77cm (C) 78cm (D) 70cm
501. As we go up the atmospheric pressure:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
502. Mercury is ……… times denser than water:
(A) 10 (B) 13 (C) 13.6 (D) 13.9
503. At a height of 30 km, the atmospheric pressure becomes only ……… of mercury:
(A) 7cm (B) 7mm (C) 76mm (D) 70cm
504. 7mm of mercury level in barometer exerts an atmospheric pressure equal to:
(A) 100 Pascal (B) 10 Pascal (C) 1000 Pascal (D) 2000 Pascal
505. At a height of 30 km, the atmospheric pressure decreases to:
(A) 100 Pascal (B) 10 Pascal (C) 1000 Pascal (D) 2000 Pascal
506. The liquid used in mercury barometer is:
(A) Water (B) Mercury (C) Lead (D) Iodine
507. On a hot day, the air above the Earth becomes hot and the atmospheric pressure:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
508. During cold chilly nights, the air above the Earth cools down and the atmospheric pressure:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
509. A gradual and average drop in atmospheric pressure means a ……… pressure in a neighbouring locality:
(A) High (B) Low (C) Average (D) Too low
510. A minor but rapid fall in atmospheric pressure indicates a …… and showery conditions in the nearby region:
(A) Windy (B) Cool (C) Hot (D) Stormy
511. A sudden fall in atmospheric pressure often followed by a ………:
(A) Storm (B) Rain (C) Typhoon (D) All
512. As we go down, atmospheric pressure:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
513. ……… works on Pascal’s law:
(A) Screw gauge (B) Vernier calipers (C) Hydraulic press (D) Wedge
514. Hydraulic press works on:
(A) Newton’s law (B) Pascal’s law (C) Archimedes principle (D) Hooke’s law
515. Liquid pressure at depth ‘h’ is:
(A) P=pgh (B) P=mpgh (C) P=pgA (D) P=pgV
516. According to Pascal’s law, pressure applied at any point of the liquid enclosed in a container is transmitted ……… to all parts of the liquid:
(A) Partially (B) Equally (C) Variably (D) None
517. Hydraulic press is used to:
(A) Lift heavy load by small force (B) Fill liquid in a container (C) To find density of an object (D) To gain velocity
518. According to Pascal’s law, for hydraulic press:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
519. In hydraulic press the ratio is always:
(A) Greater than 1 (B) Smaller than 1 (C) Equal to 1 (D) Equal to 2
520. Hydraulic excavator works on the principle of:
(A) Newton’s law (B) Pascal’s law (C) Archimedes principle (D) Hooke’s law
521. Braking systems of car and vehicles work on the principle of:
(A) Newton’s law (B) Pascal’s law (C) Archimedes principle (D) Hooke’s law
522. The density of a substance can be found with the help of:
(A) Pascal’s law (B) Hooke’s law (C) Archimedes principle (D) Principle of floatation
523. According to Archimedes Principle, upthrust is equal to:
(A) weight of displaced liquid (B) volume of displaced liquid (C) mass of displaced liquid (D) none of these
524. The Upthrust force of a liquid is equal to:
(A) pgv (B) pgV (C) pgh (D) pgA
525. If ‘w’ is the weight of the body and ‘F’ is the upthrust of liquid, then the body will float if:
(A) W > F (B) W< F (C) W = F (D) Both B and C
526. Formula to find the density of an abject according to Archimedes principle is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
527. If ‘w’ is the weight of the body and ‘F’ is the upthrust of liquid, then the body will sinks in water if:
(A) W > F (B) W< F (C) W = F (D) None
528. Archimedes principle is applicable on ………:
(A) Liquids and gases (B) Liquids and solids (C) Solids and gases (D) Solids and plasma
529. An object sinks if its weight is than the upthrust acting on it:
(A) Greater (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Very smaller
530. An object floats if its weight is than the upthrust acting on it:
(A) Greater (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Both B and C
531. Ships and submarines work on the principle of:
(A) Floatation (B) Archimedes (C) Pascal (D) Newton
532. The ships and submarines are made of wood because:
(A) The density of wood is less than water (B) Density of wood is greater than water (C) Wood is an insulator (D) Water is liquid
533. The tensile strain is equal to:
(A) change in length / original length (B) original length / change in length (C) change in shape / original shape (D) original shape / change in shape
534. The applied force that changes shape, length and volume of a substance is called:
(A) Stress (B) Strain (C) Deforming force (D) Pressing force
535. The SI unit of stress is:
(A) Nm (B) Nm-2 (C) Nm-1 (D) Ns-1
536. The SI unit of strain is:
(A) Nm (B) Nm-2 (C) Nm-1 (D) No unit
537. Stress is equal to:
(A) Area/Force (B) Force/Area (C) Volume/Force (D) Force/Volume
538. According to Hooke’s law:
(A) Stress x strain = constant (B) Stress / strain = constant (C) Strain / stress = constant (D) Stress = strain
539. The ratio between stress and tensile strain s:
(A) Elastic modulus (B) Bulk modulus (C) Young’s modulus (D) Shear modulus
540. Stress/Strain =………:
(A) Pascal’s law (B) Newton’s law (C) Archimedes’ Principle (D) Hooke’s law
541. SI unit of stress is:
(A) Nm-2 (B) Nm-1 (C) Ns (D) Nm
542. Stress is equal to:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
543. The limit in which a body recovers its original shape, length or volume is called:
(A) Elastic limit (B) Elastic force (C) Hook’s law (D) Principle of floatation
544. A large water reserviour keeps the temperature of nearby land moderate due to:
(A) low temperature of water (B) low specific heat of water (C) less absorption of heat (D) large specific heat of water
545. In ……… state of matter, molecules do not leave their position.
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Plasma
546. Metals are good conductor of heat due to the:
(A) Free Electrons (B) Big size of their molecules (C) Small size of their molecules (D) Rapid vibration of their molecules.
547. ……… of crocus is natural thermometer:
(A) Flower (B) Seed (C) Stem (D) Root
548. The degree of coldness or hotness of a body is called:
(A) Heat (B) Temperature (C) Internal energy (D) Specific heat
549. The temperature of ice and candle flame are:
(A) Same (B) Opposite (C) Equal (D) Hot
550. ……… flows from a hot body to a cold body until thermal equilibrium is reached:
(A) Temperature (B) Heat (C) Light (D) Internal energy
551. Heat flows from a hot body to a cold body until ……… is reached:
(A) Thermal equilibrium (B) Specific heat (C) Latent heat (D) Temperature
552. When two bodies having different temperature are bring in contact with each other the temperature of hot body ………:
(A) Rises (B) Falls (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
553. When two bodies having different temperature are bring in contact with each other the temperature of cold body ………:
(A) Rises (B) Falls (C) Remains constant (D) No change occurs
554. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a body is called:
(A) Internal energy (B) Ionization energy (C) Mechanical energy (D) Chemical energy
555. Which instrument is used to measure temperature of a body?
(A) Thermometer (B) Barometer (C) Manometer (D) None
556. Kinetic energy of an atom or molecule is due to its ……… which depends upon the temperature:
(A) Position (B) Motion (C) Height (D) Vibration
557. The stored energy due to intermolecular forces of atoms and molecules is called:
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Chemical energy (D) Mechanical energy
558. Water freezes at:
(A) 00 F (B) 320 F (C) -2730 K (D) 00 K
559. Normal human body temperature is:
(A) 150 C (B) 370 C (C) 370 F (D) 98.60 C
560. Mercury is used as thermometric material because it has:
(A) Uniform thermal expansion (B) Low freezing point (C) Small heat capacity (D) All the above properties
561. The water converts into ice at a temperature:
(A) 00 F (B) 320 F (C) -2730 K (D) 00 K
562. Boiling point of water is:
(A) 00 C (B) 1000 C (C) 2730 C (D) 100 K
563. Mercury freezes at:
(A) 0° C (B) – 357° C (C) – 39° C (D) -100° C
564. Temperature of ice in freezer is:
(A) 0° C (B) -8° C (C) -18° C (D) -28° C
565. Complete the equation: T( K) = ……:
(A) 273 + C (B) 273 – C (C) 273 + F (D) 273 – F
566. Absolute zero is equal to:
(A) 0° C (B) 100 K (C) 100° C (D) -273° C
567. On Celsius scale, 50° C is equal on Fahrenheit scale to:
(A) 100° F (B) 102° F (C) 122° F (D) 90° F
568. The freezing point of mercury is:
(A) High (B) Low (C) Moderate (D) Very high
569. The boiling point of mercury is:
(A) High (B) Low (C) Very low (D) Moderate
570. The specific heat capacity of mercury is:
(A) Small (B) Large (C) Very small (D) Very High value
571. The part of thermometer which feels temperature is its:
(A) Capillary tube (B) Stem (C) Bulb (D) All
572. The boiling point of mercury is:
(A) 1000 C (B) -390 C (C) 3570 C (D) -3570 C
573. The range of mercury thermometer is:
(A) 10 to 100oC (B) -10 to 100oC (C) -10 to 150oC (D) -10 to 20oC
574. The point on thermometer which shows the position of liquid when placed in ice is called:
(A) Lower fixed point (B) Upper fixed point (C) Melting point (D) Boiling point
575. The point on thermometer which shows the position of liquid when placed in steam at standard pressure above boiling point is called:
(A) Lower fixed point (B) Upper fixed point (C) Melting point (D) Boiling point
576. The temperature scales have at least ……… fixed points:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
577. Total number of temperature scales are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
578. On Celsius scale, the interval between lower and upper fixed points is divided into ……… equal parts:
(A) 32 (B) 180 (C) 273 (D) 100
579. The lower fixed point on Celsius scale is:
(A) 00 C (B) 1000 C (C) 100 K (D) 320 C
580. On Fahrenheit scale, the interval between lower and upper fixed points is divided into ……… equal parts:
(A) 32 (B) 180 (C) 273 (D) 100
581. The upper fixed point on Celsius scale is:
(A) 00 C (B) 1000 C (C) 100 K (D) 320 C
582. The upper fixed point on Kelvin scale is:
(A) 100 K (B) 273 K (C) 373 K (D) 1000 C
583. On Kelvin scale, the interval between lower and upper fixed points is divided into ……… equal parts:
(A) 32 (B) 180 (C) 273 (D) 100
584. The upper fixed point on Fahrenheit scale is:
(A) 00 C (B) 320 F (C) 2120 F (D) 100 K
585. The formula to convert Celsius into Fahrenheit scale is:
(A) F=1.8C + 32 (B) F=1.8C – 32 (C) F=1.8K – 32 (D) F=1.8K + 32
586. The lower fixed point on Kelvin scale is:
(A) 0 K (B) 273 K (C) -273 K (D) 1000 C
587. The lower fixed point on Fahrenheit scale is:
(A) 00 C (B) 320 F (C) 2120 F (D) 100 K
588. Formula to convert Kelvin into Celsius scale is:
(A) C=T(K) + 32 (B) C=T(K) – 32 (C) C=T(K) + 273 (D) C=T(K) – 273
589. Change 300K on Kelvin scale into Celsius scale of temperature:
(A) 300 C (B) 250 C (C) 270 C (D) 200 C
590. 1000F temperature is equal to:
(A) 37.8oC (B) 38.8oC (C) 48.8oC (D) 37.9oC
591. Which of the following materials has large specific heat?
(A) Copper (B) Ice (C) Water (D) Mercury
592. Unit of specific heat capacity in SI system is:
(A) Jkg-1K-1 (B) J-1kg-1K-1 (C) JkgK (D) Jkg-2K-2
593. Specific heat of iron is:
(A) 387.0 Jkg-1K-1 (B) 920.0 Jkg-1K-1 (C) 470.0 Jkg-1K-1 (D) 903.0 Jkg-1K-1
594. The specific heat of water is:
(A) 800 Jkg-1K-1 (B) 4200 Jkg-1K-1 (C) 2500 Jkg-1K-1 (D) 1760 Jkg-1K-1
595. The specific heat of ice is:
(A) 4200 Jkg-1K-1 (B) 1000 Jkg-1K-1 (C) 2100 Jkg-1K-1 (D) 2300 Jkg-1K-1
596. The specific heat of dry soil is:
(A) 2100 Jkg-1K-1 (B) 800 Jkg-1K-1 (C) 810 Jkg-1K-1 (D) 920 Jkg-1K-1
597. Water is very useful in storing and carrying thermal energy due to its ……:
(A) Melting point (B) Boiling point (C) High specific heat (D) Freezing point
598. The formula for specific heat capacity is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
599. The ice starts melting at ……… temperature:
(A) 40 C (B) -40 C (C) 00 C (D) 100 C
600. Latent heat of fusion of 1 kg of ice at 0° C is:
(A) 33.6 x 105 Jkg-1 (B) 3.36 x 105 Jkg-1 (C) 3.36 x 103 Jkg-1 (D) 336 x 105 Jkg-1
601. The unit of latent heat of fusion is:
(A) Jkg (B) Jkg-1 (C) J-1kg-1 (D) JK-1
602. The point at which a solid starts melting is called its:
(A) Freezing point (B) Melting point (C) Boiling point (D) Vapour pressure
603. The point at which a substance changes from liquid to solid state is called its:
(A) Freezing point (B) Melting point (C) Boiling point (D) Vapour pressure
604. The formula of latent heat of fusion is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
605. The unit of latent heat of vaporization is:
(A) Jkg (B) Jkg-1 (C) J-1kg-1 (D) JK-1
606. The formula of latent heat of vaporization is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
607. The latent heat of vaporization of water is:
(A) 2.26 x 105Jkg-1 (B) 3.36 x 105Jkg-1 (C) 3.36 x 106Jkg-1 (D) 2.26 x 106Jkg-1
608. Which of the following affects evaporation?
(A) Temperature (B) Surface area of the liquid (C) Wind (D) All of the above
609. Larger is the surface area of a liquid, ……… is the rate of evaporation:
(A) Greater (B) Smaller (C) Zero (D) None
610. Higher is the temperature of a liquid, ……… is the rate of evaporation:
(A) Greater (B) Smaller (C) Zero (D) None
611. The factors affecting the rate of evaporation are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
612. During evaporation, ……… escapes out from the surface of the liquid:
(A) Fast moving molecules (B) Slow moving molecules (C) Electrons (D) Protons
613. Which of the following materials has large value of temperature coefficient of linear expansion?
(A) Aluminum (B) Gold (C) Brass (D) Steel
614. What will be the value of for a solid for which has a value of 2 x 10-5 K-1?
(A) 2 x 10-5 K-1 (B) 6 x 10-5 K-1 (C) 8 x 10-15 K-1 (D) 8 x 10-5 K-1
615. Which gas is used in spite of Freon gas in refrigerator?
(A) CO2 (B) H2 (C) NH3 (D) N2
616. The co efficient of linear thermal expansion of the substance is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
617. The co efficient of volume thermal expansion of the substance is:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
618. Coefficients of linear expansion and volume expansion are relates:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
619. The way by which transfer of heat takes place are:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
620. In transfer of heat, thermal energy flows from:
(A) Cold to hot part (B) Hot to cold part (C) Hot to middle part (D) Cold to middle part
621. Transfer of heat is a ……… process:
(A) Natural (B) Artificial (C) Volcanic (D) Spontaneous
622. In solids, heat is transferred by:
(A) Radiation (B) Conduction (C) Convection (D) Absorption
623. Metals are good conductors of heat due to the:
(A) Free electrons (B) Big size of their molecules (C) Small size of their molecules (D) Rapid vibrations of their atoms
624. False ceiling is done to:
(A) Lower the height of ceiling (B) Keep the roof clean (C) Cool the room (D) Insulate the ceiling
625. What happens to the thermal conductivity of a wall if its thickness is doubled?
(A) becomes double (B) remains the same (C) becomes half (D) becomes one fourth
626. Unit of rate of thermal energy is:
(A) Kelvin (B) Joule per second (C) Joule (D) Second per joule
627. The unit of rate of conduction of thermal energy is:
(A) Js-1 (B) J (C) K (D) JK-1
628. Thermal conductivity of silver is:
(A) 245 Wm-1K-1 (B) 105 Wm-1K-1 (C) 400 Wm-1K-1 (D) 430 Wm-1K-1
629. Thermal conductivity of rubber is ……… Wm-1K-1
(A) 0.08 Wm-1K-1 (B) 1.7 Wm-1K-1 (C) 0.2 Wm-1K-1 (D) 0.59 Wm-1K-1
630. The thermal conductivity of a dry air is ……… Wm-1K-1:
(A) 0.08 Wm-1K-1 (B) 0 03 Wm-1K-1 (C) 0.02 Wm-1K-1 (D) 0.026 Wm-1K-1
631. Thermal conductivity of brick is:
(A) 0.6 Wm-1K-1 (B) 0.2 Wm-1K-1 (C) 0.8 Wm-1K-1 (D) 1.7 Wm-1K-1
632. The unit of thermal conductivity is:
(A) WmK (B) Wm-1K-1 (C) WmK-1 (D) Wm2K-1
633. The thermal conductivity of water is:
(A) 245 Wm-1K-1 (B) 0.6 Wm-1K-1 (C) 0.8 Wm-1K-1 (D) 0.59 Wm-1K-1
634. Thermal conductivity of ice is:
(A) 1.8 Wm-1K-1 (B) 0.9 Wm-1K-1 (C) 1.7 Wm-1K-1 (D) 2 Wm-1K-1
635. Which of the following is a bad conductor?
(A) Gold (B) Wood (C) Iron (D) None of these
636. Example of a bad conductor is:
(A) Gold (B) Iron (C) Wool (D) Graphite
637. In metals, conduction takes place more rapidly due to:
(A) Free electrons (B) Protons (C) Neutrons (D) Positive charge
638. The substances through which heat does not conduct easily are called:
(A) Conductors (B) Insulators (C) Metals (D) Metalloids
639. Rate of flow of heat is directly proportional to the:
(A) Cross sectional area (B) Length of the solid (C) Temperature difference between the ends (D) A and C both
640. Rate of flow of heat is inversely proportional to the:
(A) Cross sectional area (B) Length of the solid (C) Temperature difference between the ends (D) Both A and C
641. The formula of rate of flow of heat is:
(A) (B)
(C) Qt (D) None
642. Larger the cross sectional area of a solid, ……… is the rate of flow of heat:
(A) Larger (B) Smaller (C) Normal (D) Intermediate
643. The thermal conductivity is represented by:
(A) T (B) k (C) (D)
644. Larger the length of a solid, ……… is the rate of flow of heat:
(A) Larger (B) Smaller (C) Normal (D) Intermediate
645. Water is a ………:
(A) Good conductor (B) Poor conductor (C) Metalloid (D) None
646. Sauce pans are made of ……… for quick heat transfer:
(A) Metals (B) Non metals (C) Insulators (D) Wood
647. Handles of sauce pans, spoons and hot plates are made of:
(A) Good conductor (B) Bad conductor (C) Iron (D) Aluminium
648. ……… are used when quick transfer of heat is required:
(A) Bad conductors (B) Good conductors (C) Insulators (D) Metalloids
649. In gases, heat is mostly transferred by:
(A) Conduction (B) Molecular collision (C) Convection (D) Absorption
650. Convection is the process of transfer of heat due to the:
(A) Random motion of molecules (B) Downward movement of molecules (C) Upward movement of molecules (D) Free movement of molecules
651. Rooms are heated using gas heaters by:
(A) Conduction only (B) Convection and radiation (C) Radiation only (D) Convection only
652. Heat transfers through fluids by the method called:
(A) Radiation (B) Conduction (C) Convection (D) Absorption
653. Reason of glider to remain in air is:
(A) Power (B) Conduction (C) Radiation (D) Convection
654. Land breeze and sea breeze are the result of:
(A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) Absorption
655. In liquids, heat is mainly transferred by:
(A) Free electron (B) Conduction (C) Radiation (D) Convection
656. When a liquid or a gas is heated, it becomes ………:
(A) Lighter (B) Heavier (C) Denser (D) None
657. The example of expert thermal climber is:
(A) Eagle (B) Crow (C) Sparrow (D) Pigeon
658. Which of the following is a good radiator of heat?
(A) A shining silvered surface (B) A dull black surface (C) A white surface (D) A green colored surface
659. The major source of energy is:
(A) Moon (B) Earth (C) Nuclear fuels (D) Sun
660. A Leslie’s cube has faces:
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
661. Which colour is a good absorber?
(A) White (B) Black (C) Shiny (D) Colored
662. Warm clothes for winter season are:
(A) Woolen (B) Silky (C) Plastic (D) Cotton
663. A good absorber of heat:
(A) Dull black surface (B) Coloured surface (C) White surface (D) Shining silvered surface
664. Global warming is due to a gas:
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Chlorine
665. Heat energy from Sun reaches us by:
(A) Convection (B) Conduction (C) Radiation (D) Absorption
666. A dull black surface is a worst:
(A) Emitter (B) Absorber (C) Reflector (D) None
667. White surface is a good:
(A) Emitter (B) Absorber (C) Reflector (D) None
668. Heat from fireplace reaches us by:
(A) Convection (B) Conduction (C) Radiation (D) Absorption
669. Light from the Sun contains thermal radiations of ……… wavelengths:
(A) Long (B) Short (C) Both (D) None
670. Green house is a ………:
(A) Fireplace (B) Heat trap (C) Heater (D) All
671. Global warming is a result of:
(A) Green house effect (B) Convection currents (C) Gliding (D) Ozone layer
672. The amount of heat absorbed by a body depends upon the ……… of the surface:
(A) Size (B) Colour (C) Nature (D) All
673. The bottoms of cooking pots are made ……… to increase the absorption of heat from fire:
(A) White (B) Brown (C) Black (D) Silvered
ANSWERS:
1(C)2(C)3(B)4(B)5(A)6(A)7(C)8(B)9(B)10(A)11(B)12(A)13(D)14(A)15(A)16(B)17(C)18(C)19(A)20(D)21(C)22(A)23(A)24(B)25(A)26(D)27(D)28(A)29(C)30(B)31(D)32(C)33(A)34(D)35(B)36(C)37(A)38(A)39(A)40(A)41(B)42(C)43(C)44(D)45(A)46(D)47(C)48(C)49(B)50(A)51(A)52(B)53(A)54(B)55(B)56(C)57(C)58(B)59(B)60(B)61(C)62(A)63(A)64(B)65(A)66(C)67(B)68(B)69(C)70(C)71(A)72(B)73(B)74(B)75(C)76(A)77(B)78(C)79(A)80(B)81(C)82(C)83(C)84(A)85(A)86(B)87(B)88(D)89(C)90(D)91(A)92(B)93(B)94(B)95(C)96(D)97(D)98(A)99(A)100(A)101(B)102(B)103(C)104(C)105(A)106(A)107(B)108(A)109(C)110(D)111(C)112(A)113(C)114(B)115(C)116(C)117(A)118(A)119(B)120(D)121(C)122(D)123(B)124(C)125(D)126(B)127(D)128(A)129(B)130(A)131(B)132(A)133(A)134(C)135(A)136(B)137(C)138(B)139(A)140(A)141(B)142(A)143(B)144(C)145(A)146(D)147(A)148(C)149(A)150(A)151(C)152(C)153(C)154(C)155(B)156(A)157(B)158(B)159(B)160(B)161(A)162(C)163(B)164(C)165(B)166(D)167(D)168(D)169(B)170(A)171(A)172(A)173(B)174(D)175(D)176(D)177(B)178(D)179(B)180(C)181(B)182(D)183(A)184(D)185(D)186(A)187(B)188(D)189(B)190(A)191(C)192(B)193(B)194(C)195(A)196(B)197(A)198(B)199(A)200(B)201(A)202(B)203(A)204(B)205(A)206(B)207(B)208(D)209(B)210(A)211(B)212(D)213(D)214(C)215(C)216(A)217(A)218(D)219(B)220(A)221(B)222(D)223(A)224(B)225(C)226(A)227(A)228(D)229(B)230(A)231(B)232(B)233(D)234(C)235(B)236(B)237(B)238(A)239(A)240(B)241(A)242(B)243(A)244(A)245(A)246(B)247(A)248(B)249(D)250(D)251(B)252(B)253(A)254(A)255(A)256(B)257(D)258(C)259(C)260(D)261(C)262(D)263(B)264(C)265(A)266(A)267(A)268(B)269(C)270(B)271(B)272(B)273(A)274(B)275(C)276(C)277(B)278(A)279(B)280(D)281(A)282(B)283(B)284(A)285(B)286(A)287(B)288(B)289(B)290(B)291(A)292(A)293(B)294(A)295(B)296(A)297(A)298(C)299(D)300(B)301(A)302(B)303(C)304(B)305(A)306(B)307(D)308(C)309(C)310(B)311(A)312(C)313(B)314(A)315(B)316(B)317(A)318(A)319(A)320(A)321(B)322(C)323(C)324(B)325(D)326(C)327(D)328(B)329(A)330(A)331(B)332(A)333(B)334(B)335(A)336(B)337(B)338(C)339(A)340(B)341(A)342(B)343(B)344(B)345(A)346(B)347(B)348(D)349(B)350(C)351(C)352(A)353(B)354(C)355(B)356(A)357(D)358(A)359(B)360(B)361(C)362(C)363(B)364(C)365(B)366(C)367(C)368(C)369(A)370(A)371(B)372(C)373(B)374(A)375(A)376(A)377(A)378(A)379(C)380(C)381(B)382(B)383(A)384(A)385(C)386(A)387(C)388(C)389(C)390(A)391(A)392(B)393(A)394(A)395(A)396(A)397(C)398(A)399(A)400(B)401(C)402(B)403(A)404(A)405(A)406(D)407(A)408(A)409(B)410(B)411(A)412(A)413(C)414(B)415(C)416(B)417(C)418(A)419(D)420(A)421(B)422(B)423(A)424(B)425(A)426(A)427(D)428(A)429(A)430(B)431(B)432(A)433(A)434(B)435(B)436(C)437(B)438(A)439(B)440(B)441(A)442(D)443(A)444(D)445(B)446(A)447(B)448(A)449(A)450(A)451(B)452(C)453(D)454(A)455(B)456(C)457(A)458(A)459(A)460(A)461(B)462(D)463(C)464(A)465(B)466(B)467(B)468(A)469(C)470(A)471(D)472(C)473(B)474(B)475(B)476(A)477(C)478(A)479(A)480(A)481(B)482(C)483(C)484(A)485(B)486(B)487(A)488(B)489(A)490(B)491(D)492(A)493(B)494(D)495(C)496(B)497(A)498(B)499(A)500(A)501(B)502(C)503(B)504(C)505(C)506(B)507(B)508(A)509(B)510(A)511(D)512(A)513(C)514(B)515(A)516(B)517(A)518(B)519(A)520(B)521(B)522(C)523(A)524(B)525(D)526(A)527(A)528(A)529(A)530(D)531(A)532(A)533(A)534(C)535(B)536(D)537(B)538(B)539(C)540(D)541(A)542(A)543(A)544(D)545(A)546(A)547(A)548(B)549(B)550(B)551(A)552(B)553(A)554(A)555(A)556(B)557(B)558(B)559(B)560(D)561(B)562(B)563(C)564(A)565(A)566(D)567(C)568(B)569(A)570(C)571(C)572(C)573(C)574(A)575(B)576(B)577(B)578(D)579(A)580(B)581(B)582(C)583(D)584(C)585(A)586(B)587(B)588(D)589(C)590(A)591(C)592(A)593(C)594(B)595(C)596(C)597(C)598(A)599(C)600(B)601(B)602(B)603(A)604(B)605(B)606(B)607(D)608(D)609(A)610(A)611(C)612(A)613(A)614(B)615(C)616(C)617(C)618(A)619(C)620(B)621(A)622(B)623(A)624(D)625(C)626(B)627(A)628(D)629(C)630(D)631(A)632(B)633(D)634(C)635(B)636(C)637(A)638(B)639(D)640(B)641(A)642(A)643(B)644(B)645(B)646(A)647(B)648(B)649(D)650(C)651(D)652(C)653(D)654(B)655(D)656(A)657(A)658(A)659(D)660(B)661(B)662(A)663(A)664(B)665(C)666(C)667(C)668(C)669(C)670(B)671(A)672(D)673(C