9th Class Biology 700 MCQs Chapterwise English Medium

1. If a scientist is studying the methods of inserting human insulin gene in bacteria, which branch of biology may this be?
(A) Anatomy (B) Physiology (C) Biotechnology (D) Pharmacology
2. The word biology has been derived from two words:
(A) Greek (B) British (C) Hindi (D) Persian
3. The study of living things is called:
(A) Biotechnology (B) Biology (C) Chemistry (D) Farming
4. Zoology is the study of:
(A) Animals (B) Plants (C) Microorganisms (D) Viruses
5. The scientific study of plants is called:
(A) Zoology (B) Botany (C) Anatomy (D) Histology
6. The microscopic study of tissues is called:
(A) Histology (B) Morphology (C) Microbiology (D) Cytology
7. The study of cell’s structure and function is called:
(A) Genetics (B) Cell biology (C) Physiology (D) Anatomy
8. The study of internal structure of living things is called:
(A) Genetics (B) Cell biology (C) Physiology (D) Anatomy
9. The study of genes and their roles in inheritance is called:
(A) Biotechnology (B) Genetics (C) Geology (D) Information technology
10. The study of functions of living things is called:
(A) Physiology (B) Autonomy (C) Morphology (D) Histology
11. Meaning of “Logos” is:
(A) Activity (B) Structure (C) Thinking (D) Function
12. The study of the immune system of animals is called:
(A) Parasitology (B) Immunology (C) Sociology (D) Environmental biology
13. The study of insects is called:
(A) Biotechnology (B) Immunology (C) Parasitology (D) Entomology
14. Remainings of extinct organisms is called:
(A) Corals (B) Fossils (C) Coral reefs (D) Endangered
15. The study of fossils is called:
(A) Taxonomy (B) Cytobiology (C) Cell biology (D) Paleontology
16. The histology is the scientific study of:
(A) Organs (B) Tissues (C) Cells (D) Muscles
17. Study of drugs and their effects on human body is called:
(A) Socio biology (B) Parasitology (C) Entomology (D) Pharmacology
18. Famous book of Jabir Bin Hayan is:
(A) Al-kheil (B) Al-Wahoosh (C) Al-Abil (D) Al-Nabatat
19. Entomology is the study of:
(A) Tissues (B) Organelles (C) Insects (D) Bacteria
20. The study of the molecules of life is called:
(A) Anatomy (B) Immunology (C) Physiology (D) Molecular biology
21. Breeding of cow belongs to:
(A) Farming (B) Animal husbandry (C) Morphology (D) Genetics
22. Horticulture deals with the art of:
(A) Gardening (B) Forestry (C) Domestic animals (D) Farming
23. Gardening relates to the profession:
(A) Horticulture (B) Forestry (C) Agriculture (D) Farming
24. Transplantation of kidneys is example of:
(A) Medicine (B) Morphology (C) Physiology (D) Surgery
25. Jabir Bin Hayan was born in:
(A) Poland (B) China (C) Iran (D) Iraq
26. Who is the founder of medicine?
(A) Bu Ali Sina (B) Jabir Bin Hayan (C) Abdul Malik Asmai (D) All
27. Bu Ali Sina has written a book on medicine named as:
(A) Khalq-al-ansan (B) Al-Qanun-fi-al-Tib (C) Al-Haywan (D) Al-abil
28. Which book is known as canon of medicine in medicine?
(A) Al-Qanun fi-al-Tib (B) Al-Haywan (C) Al-Abil (D) Al-Khail
29. Name of the famous book of Bu Ali Sina is:
(A) Al-Nabatat (B) Al-Qanun fi-al-Tib (C) Al-Abil (D) Al-Khail
30. Abdul-Malik Asmai was born in:
(A) 721 A.D (B) 740 A.D (C) 780 A.D (D) 980 A.D
31. The book Al-Qanun-fi-al-Tib is written by:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Bu Ali Sina (C) Abdul Malik (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
32. The famous book Al-Nabatat was written by:
(A) Bu Ali Sina (B) Jabir Bin Hayan (C) Abdul Malik (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
33. The first Muslim scientist who studied animals in detail:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Al Razi (C) Bu Ali Sina (D) Abdul Malik Asmai
34. The writer of famous book “Al-Abil” is:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Abdul Malik Asmai (C) Bu Ali Sina (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
35. Botany is the study of:
(A) Animals (B) Plants (C) Bacteria (D) Fungi
36. The branch of biology that deals with the study of internal structures:
(A) Morphology (B) Anatomy (C) Histology (D) Physiology
37. The study of biomolecules and biochemical reactions is called:
(A) Biochemistry (B) Biotechnology (C) Biology (D) Anatomy
38. It deals with the classification of organisms:
(A) Taxonomy (B) Entomology (C) Anatomy (D) Botany
39. The organism which take food and shelter from living hosts and in turn harm them are called:
(A) Microorganisms (B) Parasites (C) Consumers (D) Insects
40. Scientific knowledge is the common heritage of mankind was said by:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Ibn E Haythem (C) Abdul Qadir (D) Abdul Salam
41. The scientific study of life is called:
(A) Biology (B) Parasitology (C) Science (D) Bios
42. The study of form and structure of living organisms is called:
(A) Genetics (B) Physiology (C) Anatomy (D) Morphology
43. The study of interaction between the organisms and their environment is called:
(A) Environmental biology (B) Cell biology (C) Biotechnology (D) Entomology
44. The study of basic metabolism of photosynthesis is called:
(A) Biophysics (B) Biochemistry (C) Biotechnology (D) Biometry
45. The profession which deals with the diagnosis and treatment of diseases in human is called:
(A) Biotechnology (B) Genetics (C) Medicine (D) Animal husbandry
46. Jabir Bin Hayyan was born in:
(A) 815 A.D (B) 740 A.D (C) 721 A.D (D) 980 A.D
47. Bu Ali Sina was born in:
(A) 815 A.D (B) 740 A.D (C) 721 A.D (D) 980 A.D
48. A book “Al-Wahoosh” was written by:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Abdul Malik Asmai (C) Bu Ali Sina (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
49. A book “Kalq al-ansan” was written by:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Abdul Malik Asmai (C) Bu Ali Sina (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
50. Bu Ali Sina was called as …… in the west:
(A) Avicenna (B) Sina (C) Bu Ali (D) Ali Sina
51. The photograph of Bu Ali Sina commemorated on a ticket in:
(A) Ireland (B) Germany (C) Italy (D) Poland
52. A book “Al-Khail” was written by:
(A) Jabir Bin Hayan (B) Abdul Malik Asmai (C) Bu Ali Sina (D) Ibn-e-Nafees
53. Members of the same species living in the same place at the same time make a:
(A) Habitat (B) Ecosystem (C) Community (D) Population
54. Which of these major bio elements is in the highest % in protoplasm?
(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
55. Which of the following group includes organisms all of which are absorptive in their nutrition?
(A) Protests (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Animals
56. Similar cells organized into groups and perform same functions are known as:
(A) Organ (B) Organ system (C) Tissue (D) Organelle
57. Which of these tissues also make the glandular tissue in animals?
(A) Nervous tissue (B) Epithelial tissue (C) Connective tissue (D) Muscular tissue
58. The level of organization that is less definite in plants is:
(A) Organism level (B) Organ system level (C) Organ level (D) Tissue level
59. What is TRUE about Volvox?
(A) Unicellular prokaryote (B) Unicellular eukaryote (C) Colonial eukaryote (D) Multicellular eukaryote
60. When we study the feeding relationship among different animal species of a forest, at what level of organization we are studying?
(A) Organism level (B) Population level (C) Community level (D) Biosphere level
61. Which one of these elements has the highest percentage in living organisms?
(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
62. The number of bio elements is:
(A) 10 (B) 16 (C) 14 (D) 35
63. How many elements make 99% of the total mass?
(A) Four (B) Six (C) Eight (D) Ten
64. The element that is 3% of the total mass of living organisms is:
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
65. Which bio element makes most of the composition of organism’s body?
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
66. Example of bio element is:
(A) Aluminium (B) Cobalt (C) Bromine (D) Carbon
67. An example of macro molecule is:
(A) Water (B) Glucose (C) Protein (D) Sodium chloride
68. What is the function of mitochondria?
(A) Protein synthesis (B) Transport (C) Respiration (D) Excretion
69. Protein synthesis in cell is the function of:
(A) Golgi complex (B) Mitochondria (C) Nucleus (D) Ribosomes
70. The level of organization that is less definite in plant is:
(A) Tissue level (B) Organ level (C) Organ system level (D) Individual level
71. Area of the environment, where an organism lives is called:
(A) Habitat (B) Biosphere (C) Ecosystem (D) Population
72. The part of Earth where communities of living organisms exist is called:
(A) Armosphere (B) Oosphere (C) Biosphere (D) Population
73. Epidermal tissue is found in:
(A) Pigeon (B) Sparrow (C) Crow (D) Onion
74. The highest level of biological organization is:
(A) Species (B) Tissue (C) Ecosystem (D) Biosphere
75. The mustard plant is sown in:
(A) Winter (B) Summer (C) Spring (D) Autumn
76. The smallest size of bacteria is:
(A) 0.1\mu m (B) 0.2\mu m (C) 0.3\mu m (D) 0.4\mu m
77. Which of the following is the reproductive part of a plant?
(A) Root (B) Stem (C) Leaf (D) Flower
78. The asexual reproduction in hydra takes place through:
(A) Mitosis (B) Budding (C) Cutting (D) Spore formation
79. Budding process is found in:
(A) Fern (B) Onion (C) Cockroach (D) Hydra
80. Number of sense organs are:
(A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight
81. Naturally occurring elements are:
(A) 90 (B) 92 (C) 94 (D) 96
82. …… is a biomolecule:
(A) Chlorine (B) Iodine (C) Proton (D) Protein
83. ……… is an organ:
(A) Stomach (B) Neuron (C) Electron (D) Carbon
84. Individuals of the same species, living together at a same time make a level:
(A) Habitat (B) Ecosystem (C) Community (D) Population
85. Areas where living things interact with the nonliving components of the environment is called:
(A) Population (B) Community (C) Ecosystem (D) Specie
86. Which of the following organism does not represent unicellular organization?
(A) Amoeba (B) Volvox (C) Paramecium (D) Bacteria
87. How many elements make 1% of the total mass?
(A) Four (B) Six (C) Eight (D) Ten
88. The element that is 10% of the total mass of living organisms is:
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
89. The element that is 65% of the total mass of living organisms is:
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
90. The element that is 2% of the total mass of living organisms is:
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Calcium
91. The scientific name of frog is:
(A) Brassica campestris (B) Rana tigrina (C) Homo speines (D) None
92. Which one of the characteristics is not in a good hypothesis?
(A) Must be testable (B) Must move prediction (C) Must be correct (D) Must be consistent with available data
93. At which point is a biological most likely to use reasoning?
(A) While taking observation (B) During hypothesis formulation (C) During data organization (D) None of these
94. “Freezing point of water is less than its boiling point.” Which type observation is it?
(A) Qualitative (B) Quantitative (C) Competitive (D) Non competitive
95. Plasmodium causes to spread the disease:
(A) Yellow fever (B) T.B (C) Polio (D) Malaria
96. Meaning of “aria” is:
(A) Air (B) Smoke (C) Odour (D) Smell
97. Quinine was the only effective remedy for malaria from the:
(A) 15th to the 17th century (B) 17th to the 20th century (C) 19th to the 20th century (D) 16th to the 19th century
98. Quinine is obtained from the bark of:
(A) Quina- quina tree (B) Thuja tree (C) Cinchona tree (D) Pinus tree
99. A chemical found in the bark of cinchona plant is:
(A) Aspirine (B) Tetracycline (C) Quinine (D) Morphane
100. Who suggested that mosquitoes are involved in the transmission of malaria?
(A) Laveran (B) Ronald ross (C) A.F.A. king (D) None of these
101. The army physician who observed at malaria in 1878:
(A) Ronald ross (B) Mendel (C) A.F.A. king (D) Laveran
102. Malaria is caused by:
(A) Bacteria (B) Plasmodium (C) Virus (D) Mosquito
103. A doctor A.F.A. king made 20 observations on malaria in:
(A) 1883 AD (B) 1985 AD (C) 1829 AD (D) 1825 AD
104. Which scientist firstly observed microorganisms in the blood of a malarial patient?
(A) Ronald ross (B) Laveran (C) A.F.A king (D) Robert Hooke
105. Scientists who performed experiments of malaria on sparrow:
(A) Ronald ross (B) A.F.A. king (C) Laveran (D) Bu Ali Sina
106. Malaria is spread in sparrow by mosquito:
(A) Culex (B) Anopheles (C) Dengue (D) Aphids
107. In human beings’ malaria is transmitted by:
(A) Marshy areas (B) Anopheles mosquito (C) Culex mosquito (D) Any mosquito
108. In sparrows malaria is spread by:
(A) Culex mosquito (B) Anopheles mosquito (C) Marshy areas (D) Any mosquito
109. Only female mosquitoes bite humans and sparrow to cause malaria because:
(A) They need blood of mammals and birds for maturation of their eggs (B) Male mosquitoes cannot bite (C) Plasmodium can survive only in female mosquitoes (D) All of these
110. The female mosquitoes need……… to grow their eggs:
(A) The blood of birds (B) The blood of mammals (C) Both (D) None of these
111. The growth of plasmodium in human body takes place in:
(A) Stomach (B) Small intestine (C) Liver (D) Kidneys
112. Dengue fever is spread by:
(A) Culex mosquito (B) Aedes mosquito (C) Anopheles mosquito (D) Female anopheles mosquito
113. Malaria is due to plasmodium, is called:
(A) Deduction (B) Hypothesis (C) Theory (D) Law
114. Sense organs are ……… in number:
(A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight
115. The hypothesis, which are often tested and never rejected become:
(A) Laws (B) Principles (C) Theories (D) Results
116. The senses used by biologist for observation are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
117. Biologists use discussion and reasoning procedure to formulate a:
(A) Hypothesis (B) Law (C) Theory (D) Data
118. “It should be a general statement” belongs to:
(A) Experiment (B) Theory (C) Hypothesis (D) Deduction
119. “Plasmodium is the cause of malaria.” This statement is a:
(A) Hypothesis (B) Deduction (C) Theory (D) Law
120. The tentative explanation of the observations is called:
(A) Problem (B) Hypothesis (C) Deduction (D) Result
121. The logical consequences of a hypothesis are called:
(A) Deductions (B) Observations (C) Biological problem (D) Theory
122. The biological method has played an important role in scientific research for almost:
(A) 350 years (B) 500 years (C) 275 years (D) 725 years
123. No. of steps of biological method are:
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Seven
124. The first step to solve biological problem is:
(A) Experiment (B) Hypothesis formation (C) Observation (D) Deduction
125. The most basic step of biological method is:
(A) Experimentation (B) Observation (C) Deduction (D) Hypothesis
126. To test the hypothesis biologists perform:
(A) Experiments (B) Deduction (C) Observations (D) Hypothesis
127. Galileo made his experiments in:
(A) 1656 (B) 1625 (C) 1590 (D) 1450
128. The types of observations is:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
129. Which observations are considered more accurate?
(A) Qualitative (B) Quantitative (C) Both (D) None
130. The freezing point of water is:
(A) 10oC (B) -4oC (C) 4oC (D) 0oC
131. The boiling point of water is:
(A) 100oC (B) 357oC (C) 300oC (D) 50oC
132. “A liter of water is havier than a liter of ethanol” which type of observation is it?
(A) Qualitative (B) Quantitative (C) Competitive (D) Non competitive
133. Reading and studying is included in:
(A) Observations (B) Hypothesis formation (C) Deduction (D) Reporting the results
134. Observations are made with ……… senses:
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
135. Biologists perform experiments to see if the hypothesis is:
(A) True (B) False (C) May be both (D) None
136. For deduction, a hypothesis is taken as:
(A) True (B) False (C) Accurate (D) None
137. “All plant cells have a nucleus.” This statement is a:
(A) Deduction (B) Result (C) Hypothesis (D) Observation
138. Biologists perform ……… to see if a hypothesis is true or not:
(A) Deductions (B) Experiments (C) Results (D) Observations
139. The physicians were familiar with malaria more than ……… years ago:
(A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 2000 (D) 2500
140. The word malaria is derived from two ……… words:
(A) Greek (B) Latin (C) English (D) Italian
141. The word “mala” means:
(A) Air (B) Smoke (C) Smell (D) Bad
142. The new world (America) was discovered in:
(A) 16th century (B) 17th century (C) 18th century (D) 19th century
143. The bark of which tree was very suitable for curing many fevers?
(A) Quina-quina (B) Keekar (C) Pines (D) Pomegranate
144. The disease which has killed more people than any other disease is:
(A) AIDS (B) Hepatitis (C) Malaria (D) Typhoid
145. A French army physician Laveran began to search for the cause of Malaria in:
(A) 1800 (B) 1850 (C) 1878 (D) 1820
146. “If plasmodium is the cause of malaria, then all persons ill with malaria should have plasmodium in their bloiod.” It is:
(A) Hypothesis (B) Deduction (C) Law (D) Observation
147. Deductions are tested by:
(A) Experiments (B) Observations (C) Readings (D) Writings
148. The blood of 100 healthy persons were tested under the microscope, this group is called:
(A) Control group (B) Malarial group (C) Infected group (D) Healthy group
149. Ronald Ross done his experiments in:
(A) India (B) Japan (C) China (D) England
150. Proportion means to join two equal ratio by the sign of:
(A) Equality (B) Division (C) Addition (D) Subtraction
151. A scientific law of principle is an irrefutable:
(A) Hypothesis (B) Deduction (C) Experiment (D) Theory
152. The information such as names, date and values made from observations and experimentations is called:
(A) Data (B) Collection (C) Information (D) Terms
153. The term which is necessary to prove or disprove a hypothesis by experiments is:
(A) Data organization (B) Data (C) Data analysis (D) None
154. Ratio may be expressed by:
(A) : : (B) ^ (C) + (D) (:)
155. Joining two equal ratios by the sign of equal is called:
(A) Quantity (B) Term (C) Proportion (D) Equality
156. Biodiversity of species means its:
(A) Ecosystem (B) Variety (C) Population (D) Community
157. Biodiversity is richer in:
(A) Deserts (B) Temperate regions (C) Polar regions (D) Tropics
158. The kinds of organisms inhabit the earth are:
(A) 10 millions (B) 12 millions (C) 14 millions (D) 16 millions
159. At least ……… kinds of organisms inhabit the Earth:
(A) 5 million (B) 10 million (C) 15 million (D) 20 million
160. The principle groups of organisms are:
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Eight
161. Diversity means:
(A) Kinds (B) Variety (C) Terms (D) Sequence
162. The fewer species live in the:
(A) Deserts (B) Temperate regions (C) Polar regions (D) Tropic regions
163. Biodiversity found on the Earth is a result of ……… years of evolution:
(A) 10 billion (B) 2 billion (C) 4 billion (D) 1 billion
164. An important advantage of biodiversity is:
(A) Food for humans (B) Drugs (C) Building materials (D) All
165. Classification means the grouping of organisms on the basis of:
(A) How they feed (B) The features they have in common (C) How they breathe (D) How they can survive
166. Species that are in the same ……are more closely related than species that are in the same ………
(A) Phylum – class (B) Family – order (C) Class – order (D) Family – genus
167. A related group of genera comprises:
(A) An order (B) A family (C) A class (D) A phylum
168. Branch of biology which deals with the study of classification of organisms and their evolutionary history is called:
(A) Taxonomy (B) Systematics (C) Genetics (D) Bioinformatics
169. Members of the same species living in the same time make a level:
(A) Population (B) Community (C) Ecosystem (D) Habitat
170. The areas where living organisms interact with nonliving components of the environment are called:
(A) Population (B) Community (C) Ecosystem (D) Species
171. The basic unit of classification is:
(A) Phylum (B) Class (C) Species (D) Order
172. The genus is a group of related:
(A) Orders (B) Species (C) Classes (D) Families
173. The taxon of order was introduced by:
(A) John Ray (B) Rivinus (C) Ibn-e-Rushd (D) Aristotle
174. Biologists know ……… types of animals:
(A) 1.5 millions (B) 0.5 millions (C) 8.3 millions (D) 3.8 millions
175. Biologists know about ……… species of plants:
(A) 0.5 million (B) 0.2 million (C) 2 million (D) 10 million
176. A family group consists of related:
(A) Classes (B) Orders (C) Genera (D) Species
177. The largest taxon is:
(A) Family (B) Order (C) Class (D) Kingdom
178. The branch of biology which deals with classification is called:
(A) Anatomy (B) Taxonomy (C) Physiology (D) Histology
179. The total aims of classification are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
180. Sparrows are more closely related to:
(A) Insects (B) Animals (C) Plants (D) Pigeons
181. What characteristics can be used to study the similarities and dissimilarities in organisms?
(A) Shapes (B) Food (C) Height (D) DNA
182. The groups into which organisms are classified are known as:
(A) Genus (B) Community (C) Texon (D) Variety
183. A group of related classes is:
(A) Phylum (B) Class (C) Species (D) Order
184. The scientific name of pea plant is:
(A) Homo sapiens (B) Brassica campastris (C) Pisum sativum (D) None
185. Who proposed the third kingdom system?
(A) Ernst Hackle (B) E. Chatton (C) Margulis (D) Schwartz
186. Who introduced the system of classification of organisms for first time?
(A) Aristotle (B) Robert Whitakar (C) Artist Hackel (D) Carlous
187. Carlous Linnaeus divided the nature into ……… kingdoms:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
188. The philosopher who first introduced the classification of organisms was:
(A) John Ray (B) Augustus Rivinus (C) Carolus Linnaeus (D) Aristotle
189. Aristotle classified organisms known at that time into ……… groups:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
190. Who described the characteristics of 350 species of animals in his book?
(A) Aristotle (B) Abu-Usman Umer Aljahiz (C) Andrea Caesalpino (D) John Ray
191. Andrea Caesalpino divided plants into ……… groups:
(A) Three (B) Five (C) Ten (D) Fifteen
192. The groups of Andrea Caesalpino is called:
(A) Genera (B) Plantae (C) Genus (D) Species
193. Viruses are assigned to the Kingdom:
(A) Fungi (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) None of these
194. A certain organism is multicellular adapted for photosynthesis and has multicellular sex organs. To which kingdom does it belong?
(A) Protista (B) Fungi (C) Plantae (D) Animalia
195. In which kingdom would you classify unicellular eukaryotes?
(A) Fungi and protists (B) Fungi and monera (C) Only protists (D) Only fungi
196. Mushrooms are the example of kingdom:
(A) Plantae (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Fungi
197. Bacteria are assigned to kingdom:
(A) Fungi (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Pourifera
198. Which organism is included in kingdom monera?
(A) Virus (B) Algae (C) Fungi (D) Synobacteria
199. Kingdom of ferns is:
(A) Fungi (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Animalia
200. Kingdom Protista has types:
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
201. The common example of kingdom fungi is:
(A) Ferns (B) Algae (C) Mosses (D) Mushrooms
202. All the members of which group intake their food by absorbing in the body?
(A) Protists (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Animals
203. Who introduced the five kingdom system of classification?
(A) Aristotle (B) Carolous Linnaeus (C) Robert Brown (D) Robert Whittaker
204. The broadcast category of organisms in biological taxonomy is:
(A) Class (B) Phylum (C) Kingdom (D) Family
205. Which of these is acellular?
(A) Human (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Virus
206. The smallest cells are of which bacteria?
(A) E. Coli (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mico plasma (D) Strepto Coli
207. Infertile animal is:
(A) Donkey (B) Horse (C) Mule (D) Monkey
208. Basically, cell membrane is made of:
(A) Carbohydrates and proteins (B) Carbohydrates and lipids (C) Proteins and vitamins (D) Lipids and proteins
209. In fungi, cell wall is made of:
(A) Lignin (B) Cellulose (C) Peptide glycon (D) Chitin
210. Thin layer of inner membrane of mitochondria is called:
(A) Christy (B) Metrics (C) Struma (D) Thylakoid
211. The part of earth inhabited by organism’s communities is known as:
(A) Habitat (B) Population (C) Community (D) Biosphere
212. The kingdom which have unicellular organisms is:
(A) Animalia (B) Plantae (C) Fungi (D) Protista
213. Prions are composed of:
(A) Proteins (B) Vitamins (C) Lipids (D) Enzymes
214. In binomial nomenclature, the first letter of the ……… name is capitalized.
(A) Family (B) Class (C) Genus (D) Species
215. Which of the following may be the correct way of writing the scientific name of an organism?
(A) Canis lupis (B) Saccharaum (C) Grant’s gazelle (D) E.Coli
216. The scientific name of onion is:
(A) Cassia fistula (B) Allium cepa (C) Solanum tuberosum (D) Rose alba
217. Scientific name of human being is:
(A) Pisum sativum (B) Homo sapiens (C) Rosa indica (D) Allium cepa
218. Scientific name of house crow is:
(A) Corves Splendens (B) Allium Cepa (C) Rana Tigrina (D) Asterias Rubens
219. In binomial nomenclature, the first name is of:
(A) Family (B) Species (C) Genus (D) Class
220. In binomial nomenclature, the second name is of:
(A) Family (B) Species (C) Genus (D) Class
221. The scientific name of sea star is:
(A) Corves Splendens (B) Allium Cepa (C) Rana Tigrina (D) Asterias Rubens
222. In which season houbara bustard migrate to Pakistan and settles here?
(A) Summer (B) Spring (C) Autumn (D) Winter
223. When the last member of a particular species dies, the species is said to be………?
(A) Established (B) Extinct (C) Threatened (D) Endangered
224. Himalayan jungle project was started in:
(A) 1991 (B) 1995 (C) 1997 (D) 2013
225. Sea star (Star fish) eats:
(A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Protests (D) Snails
226. Pakistan’s national bird is:
(A) Chakor partridge (B) Parrot (C) Sparrow (D) Pigeon
227. Houbara bustared is a large:
(A) Fish (B) Bird (C) Reptile (D) Plant
228. Which is the national animal of Pakistan?
(A) Cow (B) Markhor (C) Sheep (D) Buffalo
229. Today ……… million people live on Earth:
(A) 600 (B) 700 (C) 200 (D) 5000
230. In 2010, population of Pakistan was ……… million:
(A) 143.5 (B) 153.5 (C) 163.5 (D) 173.5
231. Number of persons increasing in the world population after every one minute is:
(A) 180 (B) 290 (C) 280 (D) 490
232. The daily increase in world’s population is:
(A) 2 lac sixty thousands (B) 7 thousand 5 hundreds (C) Eighty thousand (D) Sixteen hundred fifty
233. In which reason, Hobara busterd migrate to Pakistan?
(A) Summer (B) Winter (C) Spring (D) Autumn
234. There are ……… micrometers in one millimeter?
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 10000
235. The use of microscope is called:
(A) Magnification (B) Resolution (C) Compound microscope (D) Microscopy
236. The first microscope was developed by:
(A) Zacharias Janssen (B) Matthias schleden (C) Aristotle (D) Robert Brown
237. Human eye can distinguish two objects placed at a distance of:
(A) 0.05 mm (B) 0.1 mm (C) 0.08 mm (D) 0.5 mm
238. A photograph taken from a microscope is called a:
(A) Microscopy (B) Resolution (C) Micrograph (D) Magnification
239. Magnification of light microscope is:
(A) 300 X (B) 1500 X (C) 750 X (D) 3500 X
240. Resolving power of light microscope is:
(A) 0.1\mu m (B) 0.2 \mu m (C) 0.3 \mu m (D) 0.4 \mu m
241. The resolution of human eye is:
(A) 0.1 mm (B) 0.2 mm (C) 0.3 \mu m (D) 0.4 \mu m
242. The movement of amoeba can be studied by:
(A) Transmission electron microscope (B) Light microscope (C) Electron microscope (D) Hand lens
243. When was nucleus discovered in a plant cell?
(A) 1831 AD (B) 1664 AD (C) 1833 AD (D) 1834 AD
244. Who discovered nucleus in a cell in 1831?
(A) L. Pasteur (B) Schwann (C) Schleiden (D) Robert Brown
245. The scientist who firstly introduced the cell:
(A) Robert Brown (B) Aristotle (C) Robert Hooke (D) Schwann
246. Robert Hooke is a/an ……… scientist:
(A) Iranian (B) Greek (C) British (D) Arabic
247. Robert Hooke used microscope to examine cork in:
(A) 1958 (B) 1665 (C) 1560 (D) 1470
248. “All cells are formed from pre-existing cells.” Is the saying of:
(A) Pasteur (B) Robert Hooke (C) Darwin (D) Rudolf Virchow
249. The first microscope was made in:
(A) 1995 (B) 1895 (C) 1595 (D) 1685
250. Cell was discovered in:
(A) 1665 (B) 1965 (C) 1974 (D) 1995
251. Who discovered nucleus in plant cell?
(A) Robert Hooke (B) Robert Brown (C) Leueen Hook (D) Schwann
252. Which of these materials is not a component of the cell membrane?
(A) Lipids (B) Carbohydrates (C) Proteins (D) DNA
253. The ……… is major component of plant cell walls.
(A) Chitin (B) Peptidoglycan (C) Cellulose (D) Cholesterol
254. The ….is the membrane enclosed structure in eukaryotic cells that contains the DNA of the cell.
(A) Mitochondrion (B) Chloroplast (C) Nucleolus (D) Nucleus
255. Ribosomes are constructed in the?
(A) Endoplasmic (B) Nucleoid (C) Nucleolus (D) Nuclear pore.
256. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is the area in a cell where ……. are synthesized.
(A) Polysaccharides (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) DNA
257. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the area in a cell where ……. are synthesized.
(A) Polysaccharides (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) DNA
258. The mitochondrion functions in…….?
(A) Lipid storage (B) Protein synthesis (C) Photosynthesis (D) Cellular respiration
259. The thin extensions of the inner mitochondrial membrane are known as:
(A) Cristae (B) Matrix (C) Thylakoids (D) Stroma
260. The chloroplast functions in:
(A) ATP synthesis (B) Protein synthesis (C) Photosynthesis (D) DNA replication
261. Which of these cellular organelles have their own DNA?
(A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus (C) Mitochondrion (D) All of these
262. Cell walls are found in these organisms, except for:
(A) Plants (B) Animals (C) Bacteria (D) Fungi
263. Which one is the main component of a plant cell wall?
(A) Chitin (B) Peptidoglycan (C) Cellulose (D) Cholesterol
264. Which of these do not have cell wall?
(A) Fungi (B) Algae (C) Prokaryotes (D) Protozoa
265. What is called the layer of cutin in plants?
(A) Cuticle (B) Epidermis (C) Cortex (D) Leaf hairs
266. Fluid mosaic model belongs to:
(A) Cell wall (B) Cell membrane (C) Dermis (D) Pericycle
267. The fluidity of cell membrane is due to:
(A) Protein (B) Vitamin (C) Lipids (D) Glycerine
268. Elasticity of cell membrane is due to:
(A) Lipid (B) Water (C) Protein (D) Vitamin
269. The stock of thylakoids is called:
(A) Leucoplast (B) Struma (C) Cristae (D) Granum
270. Which of the following is not a part of a cell membrane?
(A) DNA (B) Minerals (C) Carbohydrates (D) Lipids
271. The organelle which produces energy is called:
(A) Ribosome (B) Vacuole (C) Nucleus (D) Mitochondria
272. The cell responsible for coordination in body is:
(A) Bone cell (B) Nerve cell (C) Heart cell (D) Skin cell
273. Which of the following is a site of protein synthesis?
(A) Ribosomes (B) Vacuole (C) Mitochondria (D) Nucleus
274. The number of sub units of ribosomes is:
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
275. Where are ribosomes synthesized?
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Nucleotide (C) Nucleolus (D) Nuclear pore
276. Which of the following is involved in aerobic respiration?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Ribosomes (D) Vacuole
277. In cell aerobic respiration sites are:
(A) Golgi bodies (B) Ribosomes (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
278. The function of mitochondria is:
(A) Lipid storage (B) Cellular respiration (C) Protein synthesis (D) Photosynthesis
279. Rough endoplasmic reticulum serves a function in the synthesis of:
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Protein (C) Lipids (D) Vitamin
280. Which of the organelles have their own DNA?
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Ribosomes (C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi bodies
281. Golgi was awarded Nobel prize in:
(A) 1908 (B) 1807 (C) 1906 (D) 1916
282. Which of these major bio elements is in the highest percentage in living bodies?
(A) O (B) N (C) C (D) H
283. The flattened sacs in a cell are called:
(A) Thylakoid (B) Cristae (C) Cisternae (D) Centriole
284. Colourless plastids are called:
(A) Chloroplast (B) Leucoplast (C) Chromoplast (D) Etioplast
285. Who discovered lysosomes?
(A) TWK (B) Brown (C) King (D) Duve
286. Major component of plant cell wall is:
(A) Chitin (B) Peptidoglycan (C) Cellulose (D) Cholesterol
287. Ribosomes are sites for synthesis of:
(A) Proteins (B) RNA (C) DNA (D) Glucose
288. Struma is found in:
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosome (C) Golgi body (D) Chloroplast
289. The most common chemical in primary cell wall is:
(A) Glucose (B) Cellulose (C) Fructose (D) Maltose
290. The major energy production centers are:
(A) Plastids (B) Mitochondria (C) Ribosomes (D) Golgi bodies
291. Cisternae belongs to:
(A) Mitochondrion (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Vacuole (D) Nucleus
292. Lysosomes were discovered by
(A) Christian Rene De Duve (B) Camillo Golgi (C) Schleden (D) Robert Brown
293. The site where ribosomal RNA is formed is called:
(A) Chromatin (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Nucleolus
294. The ribosomes are made in:
(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Endoplasmic (D) Reticulum
295. Microtubules are made up of ……… proteins:
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Myoglobin (C) Actin (D) Tubulin
296. The outermost layer of cell wall is made up of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin` (C) Lignin (D) All
297. Microfilaments are made up of a protein:
(A) Actin (B) Tubulin (C) Flagellum (D) Myosin
298. In the cell wall of a plant the chemical present is called:
(A) Potassium (B) Chitin (C) Sodium (D) Cellulose
299. Cell wall is absent in:
(A) Plants (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Animals
300. The secondary cell wall of plant cell is made up of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Lignin (D) All of these
301. The cell wall of fungi is made up of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Lignin (C) Chitin (D) Peptidoglycan
302. The cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Lignin (C) Chitin (D) Peptidoglycan
303. The diameter of human red blood cell is:
(A) 0.5 $$\mu m (B) 3 $$\mu m (C) 8 $$\mu m (D) 0.2 $$\mu m
304. The size of red blood cells is:
(A) 20.2 $$\mu m (B) 30.2 $$\mu m (C) 40.2 $$\mu m (D) 120.2 $$\mu m
305. Gas exchange in gills and lungs occurs by the process:
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Active transport (D) Turgor
306. The movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to the area of higher concentration is called:
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Passive transport (D) Active transport
307. The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to the area of lower concentration is called:
(A) Osmosis (B) Active transport (C) Diffusion (D) Passive transport
308. Plant tissues which have ability to divide are:
(A) Epidermal tissues (B) Ground tissues (C) Support tissues (D) Meristematic tissues
309. Which types of muscles are responsible for bird’s wings flapping?
(A) Skeletal muscles (B) Smooth muscles (C) Cardiac muscles (D) Epithelial tissues
310. Permanent tissues originate from the tissues:
(A) Epidermal (B) Merisstematics (C) Ground (D) Xylem
311. Cardiac muscles are present in walls of:
(A) Lungs (B) Heart (C) Kidney (D) Stomach
312. The tissues which are made up of single type of cells are called:
(A) Permanent tissues (B) Compound tissues (C) Support tissues (D) Simple tissues
313. Polymer of amino acids and sugars is:
(A) Peptidoglycan (B) Glycolipid (C) Phospholipid (D) Glycogen
314. Bone is an example of:
(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Nervous tissue (C) Connective tissue (D) Muscle tissue
315. Heart beat is made by:
(A) Smooth muscles (B) Skeletal muscles (C) Cardiac muscles (D) Epithelial tissues
316. The study of animal tissues is done by:
(A) Rudolf Virchow (B) Theoder Schwann (C) Robert Hooke (D) Louis Pasteur
317. In which stage of the cell cycle each chromosome is duplicated and so it consists of two chromatids?
(A) G1 Phase (B) S Phase (C) M Phase (D) G2 Phase
318. During which phase of mitosis spindles are formed?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) G2 Phase (D) Interphase
319. In which stage of the cell cycle, the cell is preparing to begin DNA replication?
(A) G1 Phase (B) S Phase (C) M Phase (D) G2 Phase
320. In which stage of the cell cycle most cells spend their lives?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Interphase (D) Telophase
321. Prior to cell division, each chromosome replicates or duplicates its genetic material. The products are connected by a centromere and are called:
(A) Sister chromosomes (B) Homologous chromosomes (C) Non-sister chromatids (D) Sister chromatids
322. Which event distinguishes meiosis from mitosis?
(A) Condensation of chromosomes (B) Loss of the nuclear membrane (C) Formation of metaphase plate (D) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
323. For mitosis, the chromosomes of cell duplicate during interphase. When do the chromosomes duplicate for meiosis?
(A) Before meiosis I (B) Before meiosis II (C) During meiosis I (D) Do not duplicate
324. The phase of cell cycle in which cell prepares itself for division is called:
(A) Prophase (B) Interphase (C) Metaphase (D) Telophase
325. In which stage of cell cycle, the cell is preparing enzymes for chromosome duplication?
(A) G1 (B) G2 (C) S (D) M
326. In which stage of the cell cycle cells spend most of their lives?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Interphase (D) Telophase
327. In ……… phase cells have temporarily or permanently stopped dividing:
(A) G1 (B) M phase (C) S phase (D) G0 phase
328. Chromosomes are visible during:
(A) Interphase (B) G1 phase (C) S phase (D) Cell division
329. Chromosomes are composed of:
(A) Lipids (B) DNA (C) RNA (D) DNA and protein
330. At which stage of a cell cycle cell stop dividing?
(A) G0 (B) G1 (C) G2 (D) S
331. At which stage cell doubles its chromosomes?
(A) G1 (B) S (C) G2 (D) G0
332. The most basic characteristics of life:
(A) Fermentation (B) Oxidation (C) Excretion (D) Reproduction
333. According to Rudolf Virchow, all cells come from:
(A) Atoms (B) Molecules (C) Microorganisms (D) Cells
334. The major phases of cell cycle are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
335. The relatively short period of cell cycle is:
(A) Mitotic phase (B) Inter phase (C) Metaphase (D) Telo phase
336. The time when the cell’s metabolic activity is very high is:
(A) Mitotic phase (B) Inter phase (C) Metaphase (D) Telo phase
337. Interphase is divided into ……… phases:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
338. The first phase of cell cycle is:
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase (C) G2 phase (D) G0 phase
339. During G1 phase, the supply of proteins is:
(A) Increased (B) Decreased (C) Remains same (D) None
340. Inter phase lasts for at least ……… of the total time required for cell cycle.
(A) 70% (B) 60% (C) 90% (D) 95%
341. Proteins are synthesized in:
(A) S phase (B) G0 phase (C) G1 phase (D) G2 phase
342. After the G2 phase of interphase, cell enters the:
(A) G0 phase (B) M phase (C) G1 phase (D) S phase
343. Which of the following features of cell division are very different for the animal and plant cells?
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase (C) Telophase (D) Cytokinesis
344. The division of cytoplasm is called:
(A) Karyokinesis (B) Cytokinesis (C) Kinetokore (D) Mitoses
345. During which phase of mitosis, spindles are formed?
(A) G2 (B) Interphase (C) Prophase (D) Metaphase
346. Complete set of spindle fibre is known as:
(A) Centrosome (B) Mitotic spindle (C) Centromere (D) None
347. Which phase of cell division is very different in plants and animals?
(A) Meta phase (B) Anaphase (C) Telophase (D) Cytokinesis
348. The division of nucleus is called:
(A) Synapsis (B) Cytokinesis (C) Karyokinesis (D) Interphase
349. The animal which produces lost part with the process of regeneration is:
(A) Paramecium (B) Sea star (C) Sea lion (D) Sea urchin
350. In which phase of mitosis nuclear envelop of a cell is broken down?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
351. Regeneration process is found in:
(A) Hydra (B) Funaria (C) Moss (D) Sea star
352. In which phase of a cell cycle spindle fibers are formed?
(A) G2 phase (B) Interphase (C) Prophase (D) Metaphase
353. ……… is reversal of prophase:
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase (C) Interphase (D) Telophase
354. Error in the control of mitosis may cause:
(A) Cough (B) Constipation (C) Ulcer (D) Cancer
355. Process of formation of new tumors is known as:
(A) Synapsis (B) Crossing over (C) Metastasis (D) Regeneration
356. A tumor, which remains in their original location is called:
(A) Malignant (B) Benign (C) Metastasis (D) All
357. Mitosis consists of ……… phases:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
358. Star fish regains its lost limb by:
(A) Budding (B) meiosis (C) Mitosis (D) Frag
359. During which phase the metabolic activities of cell are very high?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Interphase (D) Anaphase
360. Which organisms regenerate its lost parts through mitosis?
(A) Sea star (B) Horse (C) Mosquito (D) Frog
361. Mitosis is divided into ……… major sources:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
362. Walther Flemming observed the division of cell in:
(A) 1980 (B) 1590 (C) 1780 (D) 1880
363. Mitosis was first observed by:
(A) Walther Flemming (B) Robert Hooke (C) Robert Brown (D) Chedwick
364. In mitosis, a cell is divided into ……… daughter cells:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
365. During mitosis, the number of chromosomes in daughter cells ……… in the parent cells:
(A) Double (B) Half (C) Equal (D) None
366. Mitosis occurs only in:
(A) Prokaryotic cells (B) Eukaryotic cells (C) Unicellular cells (D) Multi cellular cells
367. The process in prokaryotes which is similar to mitosis is:
(A) Meiosis (B) Binary fission (C) Budding (D) Regeneration
368. Binary fission occurs in:
(A) Prokaryotic cells (B) Eukaryotic cells (C) Unicellular cells (D) Multi cellular cells
369. Karyokinesis is divided into ……… phases:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
370. The highly ordered structure of chromatin is called:
(A) Nucleus (B) Chromosomes (C) Cytoplasm (D) Cell membrane
371. In prophase, each chromosome is divided into ……… sister chromatids:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
372. The cells which form the body cells:
(A) Germ line cells (B) Somatic cells (C) Prokaryotic cells (D) Eukaryotic cells
373. Somatic cells form the ……… cells:
(A) Body (B) Liver (C) Heart (D) Lungs
374. The cells which form the gemetes:
(A) Germ line cells (B) Somatic cells (C) Prokaryotic cells (D) Eukaryotic cells
375. Germ line cells form:
(A) Sperms (B) Gemetes (C) Body cells (D) None
376. Somatic cells undergo:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Cytokinesis (D) Prophase
377. Germ line cells undergo:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Cytokinesis (D) Prophase
378. The point where spindle fibre are attached is:
(A) Kinetochore (B) Centrosome (C) Centrioles (D) Equator
379. Both centrosomes migrate:
(A) Towards each other (B) Opposite to each other (C) Toward centre (D) None
380. A pair of centrioles is called:
(A) Kinetochore (B) Centrosome (C) Spindle fibre (D) Chromosome
381. The arrangement of chromosomes along equator is called:
(A) Metaphase plate (B) Phragmoplast (C) Mitotic spindle (D) Cytokinesis
382. Oscar hertwing discovered meiosis in:
(A) 1875 (B) 1876 (C) 1877 (D) 1878
383. Meiosis was discovered for the first time by:
(A) Rudolf Virchow (B) Walther Flemming (C) August Weismann (D) Oscar Hertwig
384. In which organism the Thomas Hunt Morgan observed the phenomenon of crossing over?
(A) Bat (B) Mosquito (C) Fruit fly (D) Sparrows
385. The exchange of parts of chromatids of homologous chromosomes is called:
(A) Chiasmata (B) Crossing over (C) Linkage (D) Phragmoplast
386. Which of the following distinguishes meiosis from mitosis?
(A) The chromosomes number is reduced (B) Chromosomes undergo crossing over (C) The daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cell (D) All of these
387. Which phase is the longest in meiosis?
(A) Prophase-2 (B) Prophase-1 (C) Telophase-2 (D) Metaphase-1
388. The phase in which crossing over occurs:
(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase (C) Prophase-2 (D) Prophase-1
389. In 1911, ……… observed crossing over in a fruit fly:
(A) Morgan (B) Weisman (C) Mendel (D) Lamark
390. During meiosis one cell divides into daughter cells:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Eight
391. Chiasmata is formed during:
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase (C) Prophase (D) Telophase
392. The word meiosis is derived from a Greek work meion, which means:
(A) To make smaller (B) To make bigger (C) To cut (D) To duplicate
393. The chromosomes arrange themselves along the equator of the cell in phase:
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
394. The interphase of meiosis is divided into ……… phases:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
395. In meiosis, each diploid (2n) cell is divided into ……… haploid (1n) cells:
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
396. The main steps of meiosis 1 are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
397. The bivalents are also called:
(A) Synapsis (B) Chiasmata (C) Tetrad (D) Crossing over
398. Accidental death of cells and living tissues known as:
(A) Cancer (B) Apoptosis (C) Necrosis (D) Both A and C
399. Cells die each day by apoptosis in an adult human:
(A) 50-100 billion (B) 50-80 billion (C) 50-90 billion (D) 50-70 billion
400. Sea star eats:
(A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Protists (D) Muscle
401. The disease which may be due to the lack of proper care to a wound site:
(A) Cancer (B) Apoptosis (C) Necrosis (D) Both A and C
402. Spider bite can cause:
(A) Cancer (B) Apoptosis (C) Necrosis (D) Both A and C
403. To what category of molecules do enzymes belong?
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (C) Nucleic acids (D) Proteins
404. What is true about co factors?
(A) Break hydrogen bonds in protein (B) Help facilitate enzyme activity (C) Increase activation energy (D) Are composed of protein
405. The optimum temperature for working of human enzymes is:
(A) 58°C (B) 10°C (C) 37°C (D) 40°C
406. The molecules at which enzymes act are called:
(A) Products (B) Substrates (C) Catalyst (D) Enzymes
407. Enzyme used for cleaning utensils is:
(A) Amylase (B) Trypsin (C) Lipase (D) Tylon
408. The name of enzyme used in dish washing is:
(A) Protease (B) Lipase (C) Amylase (D) Pepsin
409. Enzyme pepsin works in:
(A) Mouth (B) Intestine (C) Oesophagus (D) Stomach
410. The concept of metabolism was first of all given by
(A) Kuhne (B) Koshland (C) Ibn-e-Nafees (D) Emil fisher
411. The term metabolism is derived from which language?
(A) Latin (B) Greek (C) German (D) Arabic
412. The biochemical reactions in which larger molecules are synthesized, are called:
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism (C) Metabolism (D) Enzymatic reaction
413. All biochemical reactions occurring in living organisms necessary for life are called as:
(A) Metabolism (B) Anabolism (C) Catabolism (D) Mutalism
414. Who used the term enzyme first time?
(A) Oscar Hurtwig (B) Winhelm Kuhne (C) W- Fleming (D) T.H Morgan
415. Almost all enzymes are:
(A) Protein (B) Vitamins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Fats
416. Chemically enzymes are:
(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrates (C) Lipids (D) Fats
417. Structurally enzymes are made of:
(A) Minerals (B) Amino acids (C) Vitamins (D) Fats
418. The meaning of metabolism is:
(A) To increase (B) To decrease (C) To change (D) Be normal
419. The biochemical reactions in which smaller molecules are synthesized, are called:
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism (C) Metabolism (D) Enzymatic reaction
420. The enzymes ……… the reaction:
(A) Speeds up (B) Slows down (C) Remains same (D) None
421. The minimum energy required to start a reaction is called:
(A) Activation energy (B) Reaction energy (C) Initial energy (D) Final energy
422. An intracellular enzyme is of:
(A) Glycolysis (B) Respiration (C) Photosynthesis (D) Chemical reactions
423. Pepsin enzyme works in:
(A) Liver (B) Heart (C) Stomach (D) Kidneys
424. When organic co factors are tightly bound to enzyme?
(A) Co enzymes (B) Appoenzyme (C) Co factors (D) Prosthetic group
425. The catalytic region of enzyme is called:
(A) Active site (B) Cofactor (C) Co enzyme (D) Metabolic site
426. An enzyme, which breaks down starch is:
(A) Protease (B) Amylase (C) Trypsin (D) Lipase
427. Vitamin acts as co enzymes is:
(A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin C (D) Riboflavin
428. Trypsin enzyme shows its activity at:
(A) Medium pH (B) High pH (C) Low pH (D) Acidic pH
429. Who proposed lock and key model for action of enzyme?
(A) Daniel Koshland (B) Emil Fischer (C) W – Kuhne (D) W – Fleming
430. The compounds which converts inactive pepsinogen into pepsin is called:
(A) Lipase (B) Mucus (C) Water (D) HCl
431. When did Daniel Koshland purpose induced Fit model?
(A) 1894 (B) 1958 (C) 1968 (D) 1985
432. In protein metabolism, ……… works as a catalyst:
(A) Amylase (B) Lipase (C) Pepsin (D) Protease
433. Who presented induced fit model?
(A) Daniel Koshlann (B) Emil Fisher (C) Abn-e-Nafees (D) Jabir bin Hayyan
434. Emil Fisher introduced lock and key model in:
(A) 1894 (B) 1794 (C) 1994 (D) 1890
435. What is true about enzymes?
(A) They make biochemical reactions to proceed spontaneously (B) They lower the activation energy of a reaction (C) They are not very specific in their choice of substrate (D) They are needed in large quantities
436. Alcohol is prepared by:
(A) Yeast (B) Algae (C) Onion (D) Pepper
437. In which medium enzyme trypsin works?
(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Slight basic
438. Enzymes used for removal of protein stains from clothes is called:
(A) Pepsin (B) Amylase (C) Protease (D) Lipase
439. Which of the following acts as catalyst for metabolism?
(A) Enzymes (B) Vitamin (C) Lipids (D) Protein
440. Enzyme lipase acts only on:
(A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Hormones
441. Biological detergent is:
(A) Protease enzyme (B) Pepsin (C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamine
442. Lipase enzyme acts on:
(A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Glucose (D) Starch
443. The loss of electrons is called:
(A) Reduction (B) Hydration (C) Oxidation (D) Electrolysis
444. Which of the following contains high amount of energy?
(A) AMP (B) ATP (C) ADP (D) All
445. ATP was discovered by:
(A) Fritz Lipmann (B) Calvin (C) Karl Lohmann (D) Hans Krels
446. ATP is an example of a/an
(A) Amino acid (B) Fatty acid (C) Nucleic acid (D) Nucleotide
447. When was ATP discovered?
(A) 1909 (B) 1919 (C) 1929 (D) 1939
448. Number of phosphate groups in ATP molecules is:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
449. Adenine is nitrogenous based with:
(A) Single ring (B) Double ring (C) Triple ring (D) Straight chain
450. How many ATP molecules are produced by a NADH in electron transport chain?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
451. One mole of ATP releases energy:
(A) 7.8 k cal (B) 7.9 k cal (C) 7.3 k cal (D) 7.14 k cal
452. A ribose is:
(A) Two carbon sugar (B) Three carbon sugar (C) Four carbon sugar (D) Five carbon sugar
453. Food contains ……… energy in their bonds:
(A) Heat (B) Chemical (C) Potential (D) Kinetic
454. The direct source of energy for all life processes is:
(A) Light (B) Redox reactions (C) Chemical reactions (D) Heat energy
455. The gain of electrons is called:
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Redox (D) Ionization
456. When a molecule loses a hydrogen atom, ……… occurs:
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Redox (D) Ionization
457. When a molecule gains a hydrogen atom, ……… occurs:
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Redox (D) Ionization
458. Fritz Lipmann got Noble prize in:
(A) 1929 (B) 1925 (C) 1941 (D) 1956
459. Macro molecules are:
(A) DNA (B) Proteins (C) RNA (D) All
460. The ability of ATP to store energy is due to its:
(A) Size (B) Shape (C) Molecular structure (D) Density
461. The energy currency in all animals is considered:
(A) ADP (B) ATP (C) AMP (D) Adenine
462. In which component of the leaf cells, chlorophyll is present?
(A) Struma (B) Plasma membrane (C) Thylakoids (D) Cytoplasm
463. In which of the following metabolic processes, oxidation as well as reduction of molecules occur?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
464. Chlorophyll pigment absorbs maximum light in wavelengths of:
(A) Green and blue (B) Green and red (C) Green only (D) Red and blue.
465. Regulate the opening and closing of stoma:
(A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus (C) Sulphur (D) Potassium
466. Calvin got Noble prize in:
(A) 1961 (B) 1971 (C) 1985 (D) 1991
467. Guard cells belong to:
(A) Pericycle (B) Stomata (C) Cortex (D) Endodermis
468. Stomata cover the leaf surface only:
(A) 1-3% (B) 2-3% (C) 1-2% (D) 3-4%
469. ……… of the light falling on the leaf surface is absorbed, the rest is reflected:
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 1% (D) 50%
470. In which tissues guard cells are found?
(A) Mesophyll (B) Xylem (C) Epidermal (D) Phloem
471. Which tissues are the sites of photosynthesis?
(A) Trachieds (B) Mesophyll (C) Collenchyma (D) Sclerenchyma
472. The important photosynthetic pigment is:
(A) Carotenoids (B) Chlorophyll-B (C) Chlorophyll-A (D) Chlorophyll-AB
473. Deficiency of which element causes the yellowing of leaves in plants?
(A) Zn (B) Cl (C) Cu (D) Mg
474. Raw material for photosynthesis is:
(A) Water and oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide and oxygen (C) Glucose (D) Water and carbon dioxide
475. By product of photosynthesis is:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
476. In which part of chloroplast, light reactions of photosynthesis take place?
(A) Outer membrane (B) Inner membrane (C) Fatty acids and glycerols (D) Thylakoik membrane
477. Which of the following light wavelength are more effective for photosynthesis?
(A) Green and violet (B) Red and blue (C) Blue and indigo (D) Blue and green
478. Dark reactions are part of a:
(A) Respiration (B) Necrosis (C) Photosynthesis (D) Metastasis
479. Dark reactions take place in:
(A) Struma (B) Thylakoid (C) Cytosol (D) Mitochondria
480. The place where dark reactions are carried out is:
(A) Thylakoid (B) Matrix (C) Cristac (D) Struma
481. Compounds produced during light reactions are:
(A) FADH (B) NADPH, ATP (C) Glucose (D) Sugar
482. The whole series of light reactions is called:
(A) S –Scheme (B) Z –Scheme (C) L –Scheme (D) None
483. Stomata close on the temperature of:
(A) $${10^o}C – {15^o}C (B) $${20^o}C – {25^o}C (C) $${30^o}C – {35^o}C (D) $${40^o}C – {45^o}C
484. Taking in of food is called:
(A) Absorption (B) Assimilation (C) Ingestion (D) Digestion
485. Light reactions take place in:
(A) Struma (B) Thylakoid (C) Cytosom (D) Mitochondria
486. Photosynthesis is ……… reaction:
(A) Metabolic (B) Catabolic (C) Anabolic (D) All
487. The movement of water from a dilute solution to the concentrated solution, through a membrane is called:
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Transpiration (D) Oxidation
488. The water from roots is transported to leaves by:
(A) Osmosis (B) Xylem vessels (C) Phloem vessels (D) Transpiration
489. Calvin got Noble prize for his work in:
(A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Osmosis
490. Air enters leaf through:
(A) Lenticels (B) Stem (C) Guard cells (D) Stomata
491. The carbon dioxide diffuses into air through:
(A) Guard cells (B) Lenticels (C) Mesophyll cells (D) Stomata
492. Photosynthesis occurs in ……… phases:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
493. The breakdown of water molecules is called:
(A) Osmosis (B) Photolysis (C) Electron transmutation (D) Electron breakdown
494. Dark reactions are also called:
(A) Unsaturated reactions (B) Calvin cycle (C) Z scheme (D) Photolysis
495. The sunlight energy is converted into ……… energy by chlorophyll.
(A) Heat (B) Mechanical (C) Chemical (D) Sound
496. Pigments are the substances that absorbs:
(A) Visible light (B) Heat (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Water
497. The photosynthetic pigments organized in the form of clusters are called:
(A) Photo electrons (B) Photolysis (C) Photo products (D) Photo systems
498. In which if the following steps of reparation CO2 is produced?
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Electron transport chain (D) All of these
499. Oxygen takes part in aerobic respiration in:
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Center of both A,B (D) Electron transport chain
500. From which bonds of ATP molecules energy is taken?
(A) P-P bond (B) C-H bond (C) C-O bond (D) C-N bond
501. Which of these can enter into Krebs cycle?
(A) Glucose (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Citric acid (D) Acetyl Co-A
502. How many molecules of CO2 are produced when Krebs cycle operates once?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Six
503. ……… is used in aerobic respiration:
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Light (D) Nitrogen
504. The example of three carbon molecules is:
(A) Glucose (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Starch (D) Ribose
505. Glycolysis takes place in:
(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Ribosomes
506. Aerobic respiration occurs in:
(A) Mitochondria (B) Plastids (C) Cytoplasm (D) Lysosomes
507. In which stage of respiration carbon dioxide gas is produced?
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Electron transport chain (D) None
508. How many carbon atoms are present in pyruvic acid?
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
509. Chemical formula of ethyl alcohol is:
(A) $${C_3}{H_8}OH (B) $$C{H_3}OH (C) $${C_2}{H_5}OH (D) $${D_2}O
510. One liter of ethanol weighs ……… grams.
(A) 700 (B) 980 (C) 1000 (D) 789
511. The fuel mostly used to gain energy during cellular respiration is:
(A) Starch (B) Glucose (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Acetyl coenzyme A
512. Fermenting abilities of bacteria are used in making:
(A) Soya sauce (B) Bread (C) Cheese (D) Cheese and yogurt
513. Energy producing organelle is:
(A) Nucleus (B) Vacuole (C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondria
514. The place for aerobic respiration in cell is:
(A) Ribosome (B) Chloroplast (C) Golgi bodies (D) Mitochondria
515. The process of glycolysis is found in:
(A) Vacuole (B) Ribosome (C) Golgi complex (D) Cytoplasm
516. The basic sources of energy in animals are:
(A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Nucleic acids
517. During anaerobic oxidation of glucose molecule …… ATP molecules are gained as net profit:
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
518. How much carbon dioxide molecules are made in a single Kreb’s cycle?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Six
519. How many ATP molecules are formed during cellular respiration?
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 40
520. Through which process organisms get energy?
(A) Respiration (B) Transpiration (C) Photosynthesis (D) Evaporation
521. In cellular respiration, food is oxidized into:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Nitrogen
522. In cellular respiration, oxygen is reduced into:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water (C) Glucose (D) Nitrogen
523. The oxidation of glucose depends upon the ……:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Water (D) Chloroplast
524. Which food group is our body’s best source of energy?
(A) Meat group (B) Fats, oil and sweets (C) Breads and cereals (D) Milk and cheese
525. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from ……… to ………
(A) Small intestines, liver (B) Small intestine, heart (C) Liver, heart (D) Small intestines, colon
526. Which of the following is not a function of liver?
(A) Converts glucose to glycogen (B) Converts glycogen to glucose (C) Manufactures fibrinogen (D) Produces digestives enzymes
527. ……… is a micronutrient:
(A) Sulphur (B) Calcium (C) Iron (D) Potassium
528. Manganese involved in enzyme activity for:
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration (C) Nitrogen metabolism (D) All
529. Severe deficiency of water in plants is called as:
(A) Dessication (B) Respiration (C) Transpiration (D) Nutrition
530. Example of plant nutrients is:
(A) Chorine (B) Iron (C) Nickel (D) All
531. The yellow color of leaves is due to the deficiency of:
(A) Cu (B) N (C) Cl (D) Zn
532. The nutrients which are required in large quantities are called:
(A) Nutrients (B) Macro nutrients (C) Micro nutrients (D) None
533. The nutrients which are required in small quantities are called:
(A) Nutrients (B) Macro nutrients (C) Micro nutrients (D) None
534. A Micro nutrient is:
(A) Chlorine (B) Carbon (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
535. Macro nutrient is:
(A) Carbon (B) Iron (C) Zinc (D) Chlorine
536. Which nutrient is involved in the osmosis of water?
(A) Chlorine (B) Carbon (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
537. What is the primary nutrient that provides quick useable energy for the body?
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Nucleic acid
538. The disease of Kwashiorkor and marasmus may be due to:
(A) Mineral deficiency (B) Over-intake of nutrients (C) Protein energy malnutrition (D) Ulcer
539. One gram of carbohydrate contains ……… kilocalories:
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
540. In ribose sugar, number of carbon atoms is:
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
541. One gram of lipid contains ……… kilocalories:
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Nine (D) Fifteen
542. In butter, percentage of saturated fatty acids is:
(A) 70% (B) 30% (C) 78% (D) 80%
543. Proteins are made from:
(A) Galactose (B) Glycerol (C) Fatty acids (D) Amino acids
544. One gram of protein contains……… kilocalories:
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
545. The water soluble vitamin:
(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E
546. Which of the following are water soluble vitamins?
(A) K,C,B (B) A,D,E (C) B,C (D) A,K,D
547. Which of the following are fat soluble vitamins?
(A) A,D,E,K (B) C,B,D (C) B,C (D) B,K,D
548. Which disease is caused due to deficiency of vitamin D?
(A) Scurvy (B) Rickets (C) Osteomalacia (D) Rickets and osteomalacia
549. Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin:
(A) K (B) A (C) D (D) C
550. The basic source of energy in animals are:
(A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Nucleic acid
551. Rickets disease is caused by deficiency of vitamin:
(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E
552. Deficiency of vitamin C causes disease:
(A) Scurvy (B) Anemia (C) Goiter (D) Blindness
553. Deficiency of which vitamin results night blindness?
(A) B6 (B) A (C) B12 (D) C
554. Which is not a good source of vitamin C from the following?
(A) Citrus fruit (B) Vegetables (C) Liver of cow (D) Meat
555. Deficiency of vitamin D in children causes:
(A) Osteomalacia (B) Night blindness (C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
556. Which of the following vitamins work as coenzyme?
(A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin C (D) Riboflavin
557. Number of macronutrients are:
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 9 (D) 19
558. Deficiency of iron causes:
(A) Goiter (B) Anemia (C) Kwashiorkor (D) Obesity
559. Deficiency of iodine causes:
(A) Goiter (B) Anemia (C) Scurvy (D) Obesity
560. It is essential for normal functioning of thyroid gland:
(A) Copper (B) Zinc (C) Iodine (D) Sodium
561. An example of insoluble dietary fibres in human food is:
(A) Oats (B) Barley (C) Beans (D) Wheat bran
562. The function of lipids is:
(A) Creates membrane (B) Make sheath around neuron (C) Hormone’s (D) All
563. Proteins are ……… % by weight:
(A) 7 -21 (B) 7-12 (C) 7-9 (D) 7-18
564. ……… is a water soluble vitamin:
(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E
565. Blindness is due to the deficiency of vitamin:
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
566. Night blindness is due to the deficiency of vitamin:
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
567. ……… is an example of three carbon atoms:
(A) Glucose (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Starch (D) Ribose
568. Food contains energy in its bonds:
(A) Kinetic (B) Potential (C) Heat (D) Solar
569. The daily uses of major minerals are:
(A) 100 mg (B) More than 100 mg (C) 200 mg (D) Less than 100 mg
570. Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of:
(A) Protein (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Lipids
571. The cause of kwashiorkor disease is deficiency of:
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Vitamins
572. In butter, percentage of unsaturated fatty acids is:
(A) 20% (B) 50% (C) 30% (D) 60%
573. In sunflower oil, percentage of unsaturated fatty acids is:
(A) 70% (B) 75% (C) 80% (D) 90%
574. Proteins can be converted into:
(A) Lipids (B) Enzymes (C) Carbohydrates (D) Vitamins
575. Trace minerals are required in the amounts of ……… per day:
(A) Less than 100 mg (B) Less than 50 mg (C) Less than 70 mg (D) Less than 80 mg
576. Which mineral is responsible for the transportation of oxygen in body?
(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Fluoride (D) Iodine
577. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults causes:
(A) Osteomalacia (B) Night blindness (C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
578. The wavelike movement of muscle that pushes food through the digestive system is called:
(A) Churning (B) Emulsification (C) Absorption (D) Peristalsis
579. Villi are located in:
(A) Esophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine
580. Which group of enzymes breaks up starch and other carbohydrates?
(A) Proteases (B) Lipases (C) Amylases (D) None of these
581. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes and releases them into the:
(A) Colon (B) Gallbladder (C) Liver (D) Duodenum
582. In the stomach, pepsinogen is converted into:
(A) Pepsin (B) Bicarbonate (C) HCl (D) Gastrin
583. The process of breaking down large droplets of fat into small droplets of fat for lipids is called:
(A) Emulsification (B) Absorption (C) Peristalsis (D) Churning
584. Protein is digested by:
(A) Lipase (B) Amylase (C) Protease (D) Nuclease
585. Biuret test is used for the identification of:
(A) Proteins (B) Lipids (C) Glucose (D) Starch
586. Water makes the composition of protoplasm of all living things:
(A) 60 to 95% (B) 60 to 80% (C) 60 to 90% (D) 60 to 70%
587. Which of the following is not a function of saliva?
(A) Digestion (B) Absorption (C) Lubrication (D) Stabilization of pH
588. The intake of food is called:
(A) Ingestion (B) Egestion (C) Digestion (D) Absorption
589. The example of an organ is:
(A) Neuron (B) Electron (C) Proton (D) Stomach
590. Enzyme present in saliva is:
(A) Lipase (B) Amylase (C) Protease (D) Tripsen
591. In adult human, the Esophagus is about ……… long:
(A) 15 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm
592. In stomach, pepsinogen is converted into:
(A) Pepsin (B) Bicarbonate (C) HCl (D) Gastrin
593. Gastric juice is found in:
(A) Oral cavity (B) Rectum (C) Stomach (D) Small intestine
594. Gastron hormone is produced in:
(A) Duodenum (B) Pancreas (C) Liver (D) Stomach
595. The name of compound that converts inactive enzyme:
(A) Pepsinogen (B) Intopepsin (C) HCl (D) Light water
596. Urea is formed in:
(A) Stomach (B) Liver (C) Gall bladder (D) Pancreas
597. In ……… of the alimentary canal, the maximum absorption of nutrition occurs:
(A) Small intestine (B) Large intestine (C) Pharynx (D) Stomach
598. The last part of a small intestine which is 3.5 m long is called:
(A) Ilium (B) Lacteal (C) Jejunum (D) Duodenum
599. Many bacteria live in colon that produce:
(A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D
600. Elimination of undigested food from the body is called:
(A) Ingestion (B) Digestion (C) Defecation (D) Assimilation
601. The average weight of a liver is:
(A) 1.2 kg (B) 1.5 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 2 kg
602. ……… is a special organ for protein digestion and storing of food:
(A) Stomach (B) Liver (C) Oral cavity (D) Pancreas
603. Which vitamin is made by bacteria in colon?
(A) C (B) D (C) E (D) K
604. Ulcers occur in the:
(A) Stomach (B) Duodenum (C) Esophagus (D) All of these
605. ……… causes constipation:
(A) Absorption of water in large amount (B) Dehydration (C) Use of iron medicine (D) All
606. The symptom of diarrhea is:
(A) Abdominal pain (B) Nausea (C) Vomiting (D) All
607. The sore in the inner wall of gut is called:
(A) Ulcer (B) Constipation (C) Diarrhea (D) Goiter
608. Gastric ulcer is the ulcer of:
(A) Liver (B) Stomach (C) Intestine (D) Gut
609. The cause of ulcer is:
(A) Excess acid (B) Eating spicy foods (C) Colas (D) All
610. In most plants the food is transported in the form of:
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Starch (D) Proteins
611. Stomata close when guard cells:
(A) Lose water (B) Gain chloride ions (C) Become turgid (D) Gain potassium ions
612. At very high temperature i.e. ……… stomata closure occurs to stop transpiration:
(A) $${20^o}C – {25^o}C (B) $${60^o}C (C) more than $${75^o}C (D) $${40^o}C – {45^o}C
613. The transpiration is regulated by:
(A) Mesophyll cells (B) Guard cells (C) Xylem cells (D) Phloem cells
614. Rate of transpiration decreases by the increase of:
(A) Temperature (B) Air movement (C) Air humidity (D) Leaf surface area
615. Transpiration take place through:
(A) Stomata (B) Cuticle (C) Lenticels (D) All
616. Which part of plants is responsible for transporting water?
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Root (D) Leaf
617. Evaporation of water from the surface of plant is called:
(A) Guttation (B) Translocation (C) Transpiration (D) Transportation
618. Water enters into root hairs by means of:
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Active transport (D) Passive transport
619. In phloem, movement of food is ……… way:
(A) One way (B) Two way (C) Three way (D) Four way
620. Food is transported through:
(A) Xylem (B) Cortex (C) Phloem (D) Mesophyll
621. Food is formed in the form of:
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Starch (D) Maltose
622. Acute deficiency of water in plants is called:
(A) Dessication (B) Respiration (C) Transpiration (D) Nutrition
623. A tissue that transports water and dissolved salts from roots to upper parts of plants:
(A) Phloem (B) Xylem (C) Cambium (D) Ground tissue
624. Guard cells belong to:
(A) Pericycle (B) Stomata (C) Cortex (D) Endodermis
625. ……… are the primary sited for metabolic processes:
(A) Cells (B) Tissues (C) Molecules (D) Glucose
626. Internal temperature of plant body is maintained by:
(A) Air (B) Water (C) Moisture (D) Pressure
627. Land plants get water and minerals from:
(A) Soil (B) Air (C) Rain (D) Rivers
628. External to endodermis, there is a broad zone of:
(A) Cortex (B) Xylem (C) Phloem (D) Pericycle
629. Most of the transpiration occurs through:
(A) Stomata (B) Cuticle cells (C) Lenticels (D) All
630. Roughly ……… percent of water that enters a plant is lost via transpiration:
(A) 70 (B) 50 (C) 95 (D) 90
631. Transpiration increases with the increase in:
(A) Leaf surface area (B) Air movement (C) Temperature (D) All
632. When fibrinogen makes blood clot it separates from blood and the remainder is called:
(A) Plasma (B) Lymph (C) Serum (D) Puss
633. What is correct about human red blood cells?
(A) Have limited life span (B) Are capable of phagocytosis (C) Produce antibodies (D) Are multinucleate
634. Which of the following tissue layer is found in all blood vessels?
(A) Smooth cells (B) Endothelium (C) Skeletal muscle (D) Connective tissue
635. When do the atria contract?
(A) Before diastole (B) After systole (C) During diastole (D) During systole
636. Which of the following contains deoxygenated blood in an adult human?
(A) Left atrium (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Pulmonary vein (D) All of the above
637. Which if the following chambers has the thickest walls in human heart?
(A) Right atrium (B) Left atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Left ventricle
638. To exchange of materials between the blood and the surrounding tissues occurs in:
(A) Arteries (B) Veins (C) Capillaries (D) All of above
639. Which of the following is a type of leukocyte?
(A) Lymphocyte (B) Eosinophil (C) Monocyte (D) All of above
640. Which of the following is a function of human blood?
(A) It regulates body temperature (B) It transports wastes (C) It provides defense (D) All of these
641. Valves to prevent the backflow of blood are found in the:
(A) Arteries (B) Veins (C) Capillaries (D) All of these
642. Plasma is made up of water and:
(A) Proteins (B) Salts and ions (C) Metabolites and wastes (D) All of these
643. A patient with blood group A can be given the blood of donor who has:
(A) Blood group A or AB (B) Blood group A or O (C) Blood group A only (D) Blood group O only
644. Which cells of blood are responsible for clotting?
(A) Platelets (B) Erythrocytes (C) Neutrophils (D) Basophils
645. ……… are the most numerous in healthy human blood:
(A) R.B.Cs (B) W.B.Cs (C) Platelets (D) Monocytes
646. Which of the following blood group is called the universal recipient?
(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O
647. In one heartbeat, diastole lasts about:
(A) 0.4 sec (B) 0.1 sec (C) 0.3 sec (D) 0.8 sec
648. “Lub-dubb” can be heard with the help of a:
(A) Telescope (B) Microscope (C) Stethoscope (D) Soundbox
649. The average weight of a human heart is:
(A) 200-250 grams (B) 150-200 grams (C) 250-350 grams (D) 100-200 grams
650. Normal pH of blood is:
(A) 7.1 (B) 7.4 (C) 7.7 (D) 7.9
651. Average life of red blood cell is:
(A) 130 days (B) 120 days (C) 220 days (D) 430 days
652. Plasma proteins which maintain the balance of water in blood is:
(A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen (C) Fibrin (D) Hemoglobin
653. In adult human red blood cells are produced in:
(A) Ribs (B) Spleen (C) Liver (D) Lungs
654. Exchange of materials only takes place between blood and surrounding tissues through:
(A) Arteries (B) Veins (C) Capillaries (D) All
655. There are how many chambers in the human heart?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
656. Which chamber of heart has the thicket walls?
(A) Left atrium (B) Right atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Left ventricle
657. To stop backward flow of blood, which of these has valves?
(A) Arteries (B) Veins (C) Capillaries (D) Nerves
658. The largest and strongest chamber in heart is:
(A) Left atrium (B) Right atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Left ventricle
659. The world heart day is celebrated on:
(A) 9 March (B) 29 December (C) 29 August (D) 28 September
660. Salts make up ……… plasma by weight:
(A) 0.6% (B) 0.8% (C) 0.7% (D) 0.9%
661. The largest artery is called:
(A) Aorta (B) Intercostal artery (C) Hepatic artery (D) Renal artery
662. Blood group B consists of antigen ……… and antibodies ………:
(A) Antigen A and Antibodies B (B) Antigen AB and Antibodies None (C) Antigen None and Antibodies AB (D) Antigen B and Antibodies A
663. Human heart is enclosed in a double membranous sac called:
(A) Pleura (B) Pericardium (C) Peritoneum (D) Pericarp
664. Which of the following blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood?
(A) Aorta (B) Renal artery (C) Pulmonary vein (D) Pulmonary artery
665. The universal recipient has antigen:
(A) A (B) B (C) Rh (D) A and B
666. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from small intestine to:
(A) Liver (B) Heart (C) Kidney (D) Colon
667. Which of the following blood group have antigen A?
(A) AB (B) A (C) B (D) O
668. When fibrinogen makes blood clot, it separated from blood and rest is called:
(A) Puss (B) Serum (C) Plasma (D) Lymph
669. This blood group is called universal donor:
(A) A (B) AB (C) A and B (D) O
670. The volume of blood in adult human is:
(A) 6 litre (B) 5 litre (C) 4 litre (D) 3 litre
671. The accidental death of cell is called:
(A) Necrosis (B) Apoptosis (C) Metastasis (D) Blebs
672. When blood cells are separated from blood, the rest is called:
(A) Plasma (B) Serum (C) Protein (D) Water
673. Tissue layer which is common in all blood vessels is:
(A) Smooth muscles (B) Endothelium (C) Connective tissue (D) Circular tissues
674. In a tissue, capillaries join to form small veins:
(A) Lumen (B) Venules (C) Capillaries (D) Arterioles
675. A person having none of the antigen A and B has blood group:
(A) B (B) AB (C) O (D) A
676. ABO blood groups system was introduced by:
(A) Robert Koch (B) Karl Landsteiner (C) Robert Brown (D) Schwann
677. The size of R.B.Cs is:
(A) $$2\mu m (B) $$4\mu m (C) $$6\mu m (D) $$8\mu m
678. Which cells play role in body defense?
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Thrombocytes (C) Basophils (D) Leukocytes
679. Water constitutes about of plasma:
(A) 70-92% (B) 80-90% (C) 72-80% (D) 90-92%
680. Blood pressure in veins is:
(A) High (B) Very high (C) Medium (D) Low
681. The protein which helps in blood clotting is:
(A) Albumin (B) Antigen (C) Fibrinogen (D) Hemoglobin
682. Average life duration of a platelet is ……… days:
(A) 7-8 (B) 6-7 (C) 7-9 (D) 8-9
683. What percentage of plasma weight consists of protein?
(A) 1-2 (B) 2-5 (C) 7-9 (D) 5-9
684. The average adult body has about volume of blood:
(A) 5 litre (B) 6 litre (C) 7 litre (D) 8 litre
685. The smallest blood vessels are:
(A) Veins (B) Lymph vessels (C) Capillaries (D) Arteries
686. Which cells become deficient in blood curing dengue fever?
(A) RBCs (B) Platelets (C) WBCs (D) None
687. Mosquito that transmits dengue fever:
(A) Anopheles mosquito (B) Aedes mosquito (C) Female culex mosquito (D) Male culex mosquito
688. The heartbeat of healthy woman per minute is:
(A) 90 (B) 92 (C) 75 (D) 79
689. Anemia is caused due to the deficiency of:
(A) Iron (B) Magnesium (C) Calcium (D) Phosphorous
690. The total systems for the transport of materials in human body are:
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
691. The percentage of plasma by volume of blood is:
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 55% (D) 80%
692. The percentage of cells or cell like bodies by volume of blood is:
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 45% (D) 20%
693. The respiratory gases are:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide (C) Both (D) None
694. The number of R.B.Cs in females is:
(A) 4 to 4.5 millions (B) 4 to 5 millions (C) 5 to 5.5 millions (D) 5 to 6.5 millions
695. The function of hemoglobin is:
(A) Transport oxygen (B) Production of red blood cells (C) Production of white blood cells (D) Production platelets
696. The colour of white blood cells is:
(A) White (B) Yellow (C) Red (D) No colour
697. One cubic mm of blood contains W.B.Cs in it:
(A) 5000 to 6000 millions (B) 6000 to 7000 millions (C) 7000 to 8000 millions (D) 8000 to 9000 millions
698. The death of heart tissue is called:
(A) Atherosclerosis (B) Arteriosclerosis (C) Myocardial infarction (D) Thalassemia
699. Myocardium means:
(A) Death of tissue (B) Muscles of heart (C) Ambulus (D) Chime
700. Blood cancer is:
(A) Thalassemia (B) Pneumonia (C) Leukemia (D) Arthritis
701. Myocardial infraction means:
(A) Thrombus (B) Embolus (C) Heart muscle (D) Tissue death


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